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I have been doing pendulum problems lately, and I have found 2 different formulations for potential energy of a pendulum.
U=mgl(1-cos(Θ)) and U=-mglcos(Θ)
The first says U=0 when Θ=0 (at the bottom). The second has U=0 when Θ=π/2 (halfway to the top).
Both give the same equation of motion, but the Lagrangians are different.
Which is better/conventional?
U=mgl(1-cos(Θ)) and U=-mglcos(Θ)
The first says U=0 when Θ=0 (at the bottom). The second has U=0 when Θ=π/2 (halfway to the top).
Both give the same equation of motion, but the Lagrangians are different.
Which is better/conventional?