bhobba said:
Here is the paper:
http://xxx.lanl.gov/pdf/1111.3328v3
The interesting thing is people that use the paper to prove it must be 'ontic' didn't read it:
'Here we present a no-go theorem: if the quantum state merely represents information about the real physical state of a system, then experimental predictions are obtained which contradict those of quantum theory. The argument depends on few assumptions. One is that a system has a “real physical state” – not necessarily completely described by quantum theory, but objective and independent of the observer. This assumption only needs to hold for systems that are isolated, and not entangled with other systems. Nonetheless, this assumption, or some part of it, would be denied by instrumentalist approaches to quantum theory, wherein the quantum state is merely a calculational tool for making predictions concerning macroscopic measurement outcomes.'
Thanks
Bill
I found that paper a little confusing; it wasn't completely clear to me what it was they were claiming that their argument shows. But here's what I think they might be saying:
- Assumption: If a single experiment can distinguish between two states, then those states must be physically different.
If the state is epistemic, that is, it represents the experimenter's knowledge, then different states of knowledge need not be physically different. For example, if a generate a number by flipping a coin, with heads=1 and tails=2, but I don't look at the result, then I can characterize the state of my knowledge as:
Probability(result = 1) = 1/2, Probability(result=2) = 1/2.
Alternatively, I could roll a 6-sided die to generate a number from 1-6. That leads to a different state of knowledge. But a single test won't necessarily distinguish between those possible knowledge states, because if the result is 1 or 2, then that is consistent with either state. (On the other hand, many repeated independent tests would distinguish the two).
- Fact: For any two different quantum states |\phi\rangle and |\psi\rangle, there is a single experiment that can distinguish the two. (Actually, what they seem to show is that a single experiment can distinguish |\phi\rangle \otimes |\phi\rangle and |\psi\rangle \otimes |\psi\rangle)
So this fact together with the assumption about "physically different" states implies that two systems described by different wave functions must be physically different.
It's not clear how surprising this should be. It's obviously true, using the Born interpretation, that repeated independent measurements can always distinguish any two systems described by different wave functions. This paper shows that a single measurement is sufficient. I'm not sure how important that distinction is.