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I recently came across this article on wikipedia : http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Faraday_paradox#Inapplicability_of_Faraday.27s_law"

I don't understand why is it that Faraday's law is inapplicable here. But wouldn't there be a increase in magnetic flux, since the open surface will increase in area being exposed to the magnetic field. For example, if you have a circular ring of charges and you let the charges move radially outwards, then the area enclosed by this ring will increase.

So if I have a closed loop that first goes in the conducting part of the material in the direction of v X B and then through some other path to complete the loop. Then when the charges move in the direction of v, the closed loop will increase the area of the open surface exposed to B and therefore the flux increases and the current produced is exactly that as predicted using the Lorentz force law. So both laws work well... am I correct?

In this example, the circuit does not move, and the magnetic flux through the circuit is not changing, so Faraday's law suggests no current flows. However, the Lorentz force law suggests a current does flow.

I don't understand why is it that Faraday's law is inapplicable here. But wouldn't there be a increase in magnetic flux, since the open surface will increase in area being exposed to the magnetic field. For example, if you have a circular ring of charges and you let the charges move radially outwards, then the area enclosed by this ring will increase.

So if I have a closed loop that first goes in the conducting part of the material in the direction of v X B and then through some other path to complete the loop. Then when the charges move in the direction of v, the closed loop will increase the area of the open surface exposed to B and therefore the flux increases and the current produced is exactly that as predicted using the Lorentz force law. So both laws work well... am I correct?

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