A Group Homomorphism: Verifying ø(gh) = ø(g) + ø(h) for ø: Z → Z

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around verifying that the map ø_k: Z → Z defined by ø_k(n) = kn is a homomorphism. Participants are exploring the properties of this mapping in the context of group theory, specifically focusing on the operations involved.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to understand the definition of a group homomorphism and how it applies to the given mapping. There is confusion regarding the operations involved, particularly whether multiplication or addition is the correct operation for the integers.

Discussion Status

The discussion is currently addressing a misunderstanding about the group operation for integers, with some participants clarifying that the operation should be addition rather than multiplication. There is an ongoing exploration of how this affects the verification of the homomorphism property.

Contextual Notes

Participants have noted that their understanding of linear algebra is limited, which may be influencing their approach to the problem. The distinction between the group operations in the domain and codomain is also under discussion.

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Homework Statement


For any integer K, the map ø_k: Z → Z given by ø_k(n) = kn is a homomorpism. Verify this

Homework Equations


if ø(gh) = ø(g)ø(h) for all g,h in G then the map ø: G → H is a group homomorpism


The Attempt at a Solution


So I have barely any linear algebra so many taking this summer course wasn't the best idea, but I have PF so I'm good.
So...
if ø(xy) = ø(x)ø(y) for all x,y in Z then the map ø: Z → Z is a group homomorphism. ø_k(x) = kx and ø_k(y) = ky

but then
ø(xy) = kxy and ø(x)ø(y) = (xy)k^2

i'm new to this type of thinking, can anyone help me out here?
 
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PsychonautQQ said:

Homework Statement


For any integer K, the map ø_k: Z → Z given by ø_k(n) = kn is a homomorpism. Verify this

Homework Equations


if ø(gh) = ø(g)ø(h) for all g,h in G then the map ø: G → H is a group homomorpism


The Attempt at a Solution


So I have barely any linear algebra so many taking this summer course wasn't the best idea, but I have PF so I'm good.
So...
if ø(xy) = ø(x)ø(y) for all x,y in Z then the map ø: Z → Z is a group homomorphism. ø_k(x) = kx and ø_k(y) = ky

but then
ø(xy) = kxy and ø(x)ø(y) = (xy)k^2

i'm new to this type of thinking, can anyone help me out here?

The group operation for the integers is addition, not multiplication.
 
pasmith said:
The group operation for the integers is addition, not multiplication.

So you are saying it should read ø(gh) = ø(g) + ø(h)
?
 
PsychonautQQ said:
So you are saying it should read ø(gh) = ø(g) + ø(h)
?
No, he meant ##\phi(g + h) = \phi(g) + \phi(h)##. The + in ##\phi(g+h)## is the group operation of the domain (here Z) and the + in ##\phi(g) + \phi(h)## is the group operation of the codomain (here also Z).
 

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