A particle moving under a conservative force

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves a particle moving under a conservative force, specifically focusing on deriving the period of oscillation between two positions, x1 and x2, based on the potential energy function V(x). The context is rooted in classical mechanics, particularly in the study of oscillatory motion.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply the equations of motion and energy conservation but expresses uncertainty about their approach and how to proceed with the second derivative of position.
  • Some participants suggest rewriting the equations in terms of energy conservation and using boundary conditions to find constants, while others question the effectiveness of their integration techniques.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different methods to approach the problem. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of energy conservation principles, but there is no explicit consensus on the best path forward yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating through the implications of the conservative force and potential energy, with some expressing confusion about the integration process and the relationship between velocity and position. The problem is framed within the constraints of classical mechanics homework guidelines.

jamie.j1989
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Homework Statement



From, Classical mechanics 5th edition, Tom W.B. Kibble, Frank H. Berkshire
Chapter 2, problem 30

A particle moving under a conservative force oscillates between x11 and x2. Show that the period of oscillation is

τ = 2[itex]\int[/itex][itex]^{x_{2}}_{x^{1}}[/itex][itex]\sqrt{\frac{m}{2(V(x_{2})-V(x))}}[/itex]dx

Homework Equations



m[itex]\ddot{x}[/itex] + F(x) = 0

F(x) = -[itex]\frac{d}{dx}[/itex]V(x)


The Attempt at a Solution



m[itex]\ddot{x}[/itex] + F(x) = 0

→ m[itex]\ddot{x}[/itex] -[itex]\frac{d}{dx}[/itex]V(x) = 0

→ [itex]\int[/itex][itex]^{x_{2}}_{x_{1}}[/itex]m[itex]\ddot{x}[/itex]dx = V(x2)-V(x1)

Im not sure if I've started right and if I have I don't know how to go forward with the [itex]\ddot{x}[/itex]
 
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Rewrite $$m\ddot{x} + \frac{dV}{dx} = 0 \,\,\text{as}\,\,\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{1}{2}m\dot{x}^2 + V(x)\right) = 0$$ and carry on from there.
 
When I try that I just end up with

m[itex]\int[/itex][itex]\dot{x}[/itex][itex]\frac{d\dot{x}}{dx}[/itex]dx + V(x) = 0

by parts on the integral just sends me in a circle?
 
If $$\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{1}{2}m\left(\frac{dx}{dt}\right)^2 + V(x) \right) = 0\,\,\,\text{then}\,\,\,\frac{1}{2}m\left(\frac{dx}{dt}\right)^2 + V(x) = \text{const}$$ Use what you know about the particle at the boundaries of its oscillations (i.e at ##x_1## and ##x_2##) to obtain the constant.

Once you have this, you can separate variables to find T.
 

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