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Hello ,

I have a question please , I read in the book ( reflections on relativity ) that :-

Suppose a particle accelerates in such a way that it is subjected to a constant proper acceleration a0 for some period of time. The proper acceleration of a particle is defined as the acceleration with respect to the particle's momentarily co-moving inertial coordinates at any given instant. The particle's velocity is v = 0 at the time t = 0, when it is located at x = 0, and at some infinitesimal time t later its velocity is t a0 and its location is (1/2) a0 t2. The slope of its line of simultaneity is the inverse of the slope 1/v of its worldline, so its locus of simultaneity at t = t is the line given by

http://www.m5zn.com/uploads/2010/7/2/photo/0702100307469iwmjeb2nqrkvn4j.bmp

And my question is how did we derive the last equation ?

I need help please .

2. Relevant equations

3. The attempt at a solution

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# Homework Help: A question from a book about relativity

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