It's really just the binomial formula:
[tex](a+ b)^n= \sum_{i=0}^n _nC_i a^i b^{n-i}[/tex]
the binomial coefficient is there because you are adding all the possible ways of "ordering" i "a"s and n-i "b"s.
Repeatedly differentiating a product gives a similar thing for exactly the same reasons:
[tex]\frac{d^n fg}{dx^n}= \sum_{i=0}^n _nC_i \frac{d^i f}{dx^i}{\frac{d^{n-i}g}{dx^{n-i}}[/itex]<br />
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For n= 50, that can have up to 51 terms. Fortunately, as you observe, the third derivative of x<sup>2</sup> is 0 so, taking f(x)= x<sup>2</sup>, f'(x)= 2x, f"(x)= 2, and all other derivatives are 0. The formula becomes<br />
[tex]_{50}C_0 x^2\frac{d^{50} sin(x)}{dx^{50}}+ _{50}C_1 (2x)\frac{d^{49}sin(x)}{dx^{49}}+ _{50}C_2 (2)\frac{d^{48}sin(x)}{dx^{48}}[/tex]<br />
So the only "problem" left is finding those derivatives of sin(x)- and that should be easy. (The derivatives of sine and cosine have "period" 4.)<br />
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Be careful of the signs- that's where your previous attempt is wrong.[/tex]