A skeptic's view on Bohmian Mechanics

In summary, The paper "Quantum Probability Theory and the Foundations of Quantum mechanics" discusses the use of Bohmian mechanics in understanding quantum mechanics. It references a blog article by Reinhard Werner which raises questions about the validity of Bohmian trajectories and their connection to empirical reality. The article also discusses the use of wave functions versus density operators in describing single systems and the concept of the "fapp fixed outcomes" problem. There is a debate about the usefulness of Bohmian mechanics and whether it adds any new understanding to quantum mechanics. Ultimately, the paper argues that Bohmian mechanics is just a commentary on quantum mechanics and is not necessary for physicists to understand or use.
  • #106
zonde said:
we can say that there can be no photon or any massive particle that has trajectory trough both events if they are spacelike separated by definition.

So what is the definition of "spacelike separated" in Newtonian mechanics? There isn't one--the concept simply does not exist in Newtonian mechanics.
 
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  • #107
PeterDonis said:
Is there one?
This answer
Demystifier said:
That's because wave functions, described by relativistic wave equations (such as Dirac or Klein-Gordon equation), do not propagate faster than c.
to the comment
DrChinese said:
So I would ask any Bohmian why there is a limit - in a nonlocal theory - to entanglement which exactly matches the limits given by c.
seems to suggest that there is one. But no reference is given...
 
  • #108
ShayanJ said:
Well, you said "I agree", so I thought that's what you got from what I said!
Anyway, that's exactly what I wanted to say. The physics community now is divided. The majority of physicists are happy with quantum mechanics and see no problem in it and just want to use it. There are some people who see some problems and want to solve them. These are not only Bohmians. Everyone who does some research on foundational issues is in this camp. So its not that there are problems that only Bohmians see, its just that Bohmians have their own way of looking at these problems. And I really don't see anything different here and that's what confusing me. Why everyone treats Bohmian mechanics so much different than other interpretations? Its not better than others but its not worse too!

Bohmian Mechanics is different from all other interpretations because it removes the weirdness from QM. That's why people don't like it. You can't write any more popsci books about how weird QM is. It's a PR and financial disaster for physics.
 
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  • #109
A. Neumaier said:
There is a lot of rigorous statistical mechanics done in mathematical physics. See, e.g., the nice book by Ruelle. The only approximation made there is the thermodynamic limit, replacing numbers like ##N=10^{23}## by infinity. One can then even estimate the relative error made by this replacement, and it is of the order ##N^{-1/2}##, hence very tiny. Thus there is no barrier of the kind you seem to suggest. At least rigorously proving the validity of QM to 11 decimal places is in principle feasible.

Demystifier said:
Does this book explain why a priori probability density in the phase space is uniform? Or is it just an axiom?

I'm not sure what Ruelle's book exactly states, not the present state of the art. However, in general, the rigourous proofs are not sufficient either because the time needed for convergence to reach equilibrium is far longer than what is observed (eg. comments on ergodic theorems at the end of https://ocw.mit.edu/courses/physics...-fall-2013/lecture-notes/MIT8_333F13_Lec7.pdf), or when the convergence to equilibrium is fast enough it is restricted to some special class of dynamical systems (eg. Axiom A type https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Axiom_A or http://www.ihes.fr/~ruelle/PUBLICATIONS/[42].pdf) for which there is no proof that that class includes most physical systems.

Interesting comments on Axiom A systems here: https://arxiv.org/abs/1604.07672v1 and http://www.scholarpedia.org/article/Chaotic_hypothesis.
 
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  • #110
atyy said:
it removes the weirdness from QM.
No it doesn't. The weirdness of QM is encapsulated in its violation of Bell-type inequalities. Bell guaranteed that we can't think about the microscopic world using our intuition from the macroscopic world. Any theory that violates Bell-type inequalities still has some of that weirdness and BM is no exception. Its true that in BM particles have definite positions and momenta at all times, but you have the quantum potential with its weird behavior and probably other weird things.

As I said, I myself don't like BM because I like a smart nature that can handle its business without giving that much attention to its details. I really don't like BM to be the actual mechanism behind the nature and I don't think it is. But this is not a physical argument and I won't let this undermine my ability to assess actual physical arguments for and against BM. What I don't like is when some people think that "I don't like it" is actually a physical argument!
 
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  • #111
ShayanJ said:
No it doesn't. The weirdness of QM is encapsulated in its violation of Bell-type inequalities. Bell guaranteed that we can't think about the microscopic world using our intuition from the macroscopic world. Any theory that violates Bell-type inequalities still has some of that weirdness and BM is no exception. Its true that in BM particles have definite positions and momenta at all times, but you have the quantum potential with its weird behavior and probably other weird things.

As I said, I myself don't like BM because I like a smart nature that can handle its business without giving that much attention to its details. I really don't like BM to be the actual mechanism behind the nature and I don't think it is. But this is not a physical argument and I won't let this undermine my ability to assess actual physical arguments for and against BM. What I don't like is when some people think that "I don't like it" is actually a physical argument!

The Bell inequalities say reality is nonlocal. Reality is not weird unless you think nonlocality is weird.
 
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  • #112
Everyone, "weird" and similar adjectives are subjective judgments, not scientific terms. Please keep the discussion on topic.
 
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  • #113
atyy said:
The Bell inequalities say reality is nonlocal. Reality is not weird unless you think nonlocality is weird.
I think Bell's assumptions are a good description of what we'd call non-weird. Its not something subjective, Newtonian mechanics is not weird. But relativity is, and any theory that violates Bell-type inequalities is. Weird means non-intuitive and strange to our common sense and our intuition and common sense come from years of living as macroscopic beings dealing with other macroscopic beings and always moving much slower than light w.r.t. each other.
So for me, the fact that you can somehow rewire your mind so that you call relativity, non-locality, etc. intuitive and appealing to common sense doesn't mean that they're not weird. They're weird for a macroscopic being moving much slower than light.
I should mention that I have no problem with relativity and I really love it and have succeeded in developing an intuition for it but as I said that's not natural for a human being.
 
  • #114
ShayanJ said:
I think Bell's assumptions are a good description of what we'd call non-weird.

Yes, but it's still your opinion and not something that's amenable to scientific testing. So, as I said, it's off topic. This thread is supposed to be about scientific aspects of Bohmian mechanics, not who does or does not think it is "weird". Please bear that in mind.
 
  • #115
DrChinese said:
So I would ask any Bohmian why there is a limit - in a nonlocal theory - to entanglement which exactly matches the limits given by c. You never see 2 entangled particles unless they were in contact (limited by c) with some other system that gave rise to the entanglement. I would think that non-local mechanism would give rise to entanglement of all kinds of other things where c is not a limiting factor, if it is also the "out" that explains quantum non-locality. (And yes I know BM is supposed to be equivalent to QM, but this question still seems open to me.)

This part is put in by hand, but it is not restricted to Bohmian Mechanics, and we can restrict ourselves to Copenhagen QM. If we take the Wilsonian view of QFT (in the Copenhagen interpretation), then QED should be thought of as conceptually arising from a non-relativistic quantum mechanical system such as lattice QED. There are also other ways in which relativistic QED can arise from a non-relativistic lattice theory with different degrees of freedom than just a discretization of QED. In these systems, technically, FTL is permitted. In practice they are not. These are governed by Lieb Robinson bounds: https://arxiv.org/abs/0808.2495.

Within BM, in addition to emergent relativity via a Lieb-Robinson bound, the other assumption that is important is quantum equilibrium. In particular cases, this can be justified analogously to how equilibrium statistical mechanics can arise from Newtonian mechanics.

The two key ideas are:
1. Quantum equilibrium allows BM to approximate non-relativistic QM as closely as needed.
2. Lieb Robinson bounds allow non-relativistic QM to approximate relativistic QM as closely as needed.

Taken together these are at the physics level of rigour (but the Lieb-Robinson bound has been made very rigourous), and the major flaw in this argument is that even at the physics level of rigour the argument does not yet seem to go through for chiral fermions interacting with non-abelian gauge fields. I believe it is fine for QED and quantum gravity.
 
  • #116
atyy said:
what Ruelle's book exactly states, not the present state of the art.
Its an old book, thus it definitely doesn't tell the state of the art. But in math, old books don't become obsolete, truth is truth at all times.
Most results, however, are not based on the ergodic theorem, so what you write is not so relevant.
 
  • #117
ShayanJ said:
What I don't like is when some people think that "I don't like it" is actually a physical argument!
Why did you then complain when I argued that physicists make choices based on with what they can feel happy? It is not a physics argument but an argument why one is prepared to consider certain assumptions or arguments as fruitful. Fruitful is also a subjective aspect, but very important in the development of science!
 
  • #118
A. Neumaier said:
Its an old book, thus it definitely doesn't tell the state of the art. But in math, old books don't become obsolete, truth is truth at all times.
Most results, however, are not based on the ergodic theorem, so what you write is not so relevant.

You are clearly not familiar with the work you cite! Ruelle's resulst are axiom A results!
 
  • #119
RockyMarciano said:
If by real you mean EPR real, they are not.
So, if I understood you correctly, the first spin is EPR real (because it is measured by Alice), the second spin is also EPR real (because it is measued by Bob), but both spins together are not EPR real (because nobody observed both spins). Is that what you are saying?
 
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  • #120
DrChinese said:
So my point is that non-realism has nothing to do with saying "nothing exists". It only has to do with saying: "no initial configuration determines the observed outcome."
I think this should be called non-determinism.

DrChinese said:
We live in a subjective universe, and how we choose to observe actively shapes the reality we see.
This is non-realism. But I never understood why so many people think that non-determinism and non-realism is the same.
 
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  • #121
A. Neumaier said:
But no reference is given...
Any book or review paper on BM, or the original Bohm's two papers from 1951.
 
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  • #122
A. Neumaier said:
I'd be interested to know what happens in a relativistic version of Bohmian mechanics. Do the microscopic particle positions respect Einstein causality, or is the latter considered to be a statistical effect?
It is a statistical effect. See e.g.
https://arxiv.org/abs/1205.1992
 
  • #123
atyy said:
You are clearly not familiar with the work you cite! Ruelle's resulst are axiom A results!
He wrote several books, which you conflate. You seem to refer to his book Thermodynamic Formalism. The Mathematical Structures of Equilibrium Statistical Mechanics whereas I was referring to https://www.amazon.com/dp/9810238622/?tag=pfamazon01-20.
 
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  • #124
Demystifier said:
So, if I understood you correctly, the first spin is EPR real (because it is measured by Alice), the second spin is also EPR real (because it is measued by Bob), but both spins together are not EPR real (because nobody observed both spins). Is that what you are saying?

No. You keep conflating the broadest philosophical meaning and the EPR meaning of "real". Neither Alice's nor Bob's measures are separately EPR real as is shown by the experiments of BI violation. But if Alice or Bob make a measurement these are of course real in the sense that it is not something just in their mind, by definition of measurement in science.

Demystifier said:
This is non-realism. But I never understood why so many people think that non-determinism and non-realism is the same.
Because they are the same in the EPR definition of realism as deterministic. They are of course not the same in the philosophical definition of realism I gave that you normally use when referring to realism.
 
  • #125
Demystifier said:
It is a statistical effect. See e.g.
https://arxiv.org/abs/1205.1992
Thanks. I didn't know this paper. When viewed in the large ##N## limit, does your many-particle relativistic quantum mechanics reproduce macroscopic continuum mechanics? Or is it just a proposal studied for its own sake?
 
  • #126
RockyMarciano said:
You keep conflating the broadest philosophical meaning and the EPR meaning of "real".
This is not a thread to discuss and correct notions of ''real'' but one on Bohmian mechanics. Please keep your remarks on topic.
 
  • #127
A. Neumaier said:
When viewed in the large ##N## limit, does your many-particle relativistic quantum mechanics reproduce macroscopic continuum mechanics?
Yes (but not in a way you naively expect).
 
  • #128
A. Neumaier said:
This is not a thread to discuss and correct notions of ''real'' but one on Bohmian mechanics. Please keep your remarks on topic.
I was answering a direct question by the official Bohmian around here.Either the question is on topic and then the answer is, or the question is off topic and then you should make your comment addressing the question.
 
  • #129
Demystifier said:
Yes (but not in a way you naively expect).
In which way, then?
 
  • #130
RockyMarciano said:
I was answering a direct question by the official Bohmian around here. Either the question is on topic and then the answer is, or the question is off topic and then you should make your comment addressing the question.
I did it already: https://www.physicsforums.com/posts/5665529/ and posts #95-#97. But you didn't listen.

Single posts easily slide away from a topic. But a post already off-topic (and in response to one of your comments that was already off-topic) doesn't justify answering a direct question in it in the same thread. If you want to answer to something off-topic you can always open a new thread to do so, and copy the link to the originating post there.
 
  • #131
zonde said:
Ok, then here are some of Bell's own words:
"It is important to note that to the limited degree that determinism plays a role in the EPR argument, it is not assumed but inferred. What is held sacred is the principle of “local causality” or “no action at a distance”. Of course, mere correlation between distant events does not itself imply action at a distance, but only correlation between the signals reaching the two places. These signals, in the idealized example of Bohm, must be sufficient to determine whether the particles would go up or down. For any residual undeterminism could only spoil the perfect correlation. It is remarkably difficult to get this point across, that determinism is not a presupposition of the analysis."
This is just playing semantically with the distinction between inferences and assumptions. The premise of BI that measurements in the same direction determines perfect anticorrelation measurements pressumes simultaneous existence of the spin measurement angles at certain initial time t, therefore determinism despite of how common sense this premise might appear. The fact is that this premise is implied by "no action at a distance" i.e. classical locality principle when applied to spacelike separated regions. So here the classical notion of locality based on simultaneity is used, i.e. the classical determinism with an initial state at time t=0 with a Cauchy surface of simultaneous measurements outcomes.

And please try not to use "realism" in QM context unless you mean "not solipsism" because it's very confusing what you mean with it. (is it determinism here? or causality? or particles having spin at all times?)
In the context of EPR, EPR realism is clearly well defined, so why not use it? The meaning "not solipsism" is the broadest philosophical meaning and this is indeed confusing in the quantum context of EPR.
 
  • #132
A. Neumaier said:
In which way, then?
Classical fluid consists of many classical mutually non-entangled particles. Quantum mechanically, each of these particles can be considered to have it's own wave function, the width of which is of the order of Bohr radius. By Ehrenfest theorem, the "center" of each of these wave packets moves by classical laws. In BM, each of these wave packets is filled with a few pointlike particle (depending on the kind of atom one talks about). Within packet the Bohmian motion of the particles is highly non-classical. Nevertheless, since each particle is confined within the packet (the center of which moves classically), this non-classical motion looks pretty classical at large macroscopic distances.
 
  • #133
A. Neumaier said:
I did it already: https://www.physicsforums.com/posts/5665529/ and posts #95-#97. But you didn't listen.
And then in #99 you asked a question as off-topic from the OP as the ones Demystifier have been asking me.
 
  • #134
RockyMarciano said:
And then in #99 you asked a question as off-topic from the OP as the ones Demystifier have been asking me.
It is my thread and my question in #99 was about an aspect of Bohmian mechanics quite related to the title. But you answered in #131 again an offtopic post by zonde to one of your off-topic posts and contribute in this way to the pollution of the thread.
 
  • #135
Demystifier said:
Classical fluid consists of many classical mutually non-entangled particles. Quantum mechanically, each of these particles can be considered to have it's own wave function, the width of which is of the order of Bohr radius. By Ehrenfest theorem, the "center" of each of these wave packets moves by classical laws. In BM, each of these wave packets is filled with a few pointlike particle (depending on the kind of atom one talks about). Within packet the Bohmian motion of the particles is highly non-classical. Nevertheless, since each particle is confined within the packet (the center of which moves classically), this non-classical motion looks pretty classical at large macroscopic distances.
I don't see how starting from your relativistic multiparticle version, this gives macroscopic continuum mechanics. Reference?
 
  • #136
A. Neumaier said:
It is my thread
Ok, if it comes down to this I'm out.
 
  • #137
A. Neumaier said:
I don't see how starting from your relativistic multiparticle version, this gives macroscopic continuum mechanics. Reference?
I've just explained it in the post above, but in a sketchy way. If you don't see it I would need to write a long article with all details for you, which I don't plan to do. There is no reference because it is considered obvious, not only in the BM community, but also in the clasicallity-from-decoherence community.
 
  • #138
Demystifier said:
There is no reference because it is considered obvious, not only in the BM community, but also in the clasicallity-from-decoherence community.
Strange. In statistical mechanics, it is considered nontrivial to derive macroscopic continuum mechanics from microscopic multiparticle theory, but apparently in BM everything trivializes so that none of the difficult things must be done. It is this attitude that was criticised by Reinhard Werner in the article quoted in post #1,
Reinhard Werner said:
The Bohmian perspective seems to be the opposite. You don’t care about the hard problem, but only about that last, utterly trivial bit.
 
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  • #139
A. Neumaier said:
In statistical mechnaics, it is considered nontrivial to derive macroscopic continuum mechanics from microscopic multiparticle theory, but apparently in BM everything trivializes so that none of the difficult things must be done.
It is of course non-trivial (either with or without BM) to do it rigorously. But it is trivial if you don't insist on rigor.

Anyway, you might be interested in
https://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0112005
 
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  • #140
A. Neumaier said:
I don't see how starting from your relativistic multiparticle version, this gives macroscopic continuum mechanics. Reference?
I have noticed that many of your questions about BM totally miss the point. To exaggerate a bit, many of your questions sound to me like: OK, string theory is the theory of everything, so how string theory explains the protein folding? Reference?

BM is supposed to be a fundamental theory, but it does not mean that it can easily answer all possible macroscopic questions. See
http://robotics.cs.tamu.edu/dshell/cs689/papers/anderson72more_is_different.pdf
 
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