- #31
anonymousk
- 40
- 0
Wrong? Np(1-p) and (N/Y) p(1-p) are both valid for the things they're valid for.
Haha!
No, we're not adding a variance for a number of bankruptcies to a variance for a probability! That would make no sense. We want to add two variance components for the number of bankruptcies, but one is a consequence of a variance for a probability. So it isn't p(1-p)/N or p(1-p)/NY. It will have the same order of magnitude as N. Neither is in itself the variance of the expected number in 2014. You have to add them to get that.
Sorry, but I don't feel you're reading my posts very carefully. I keep having to make the same points. I understand you're a bit fed up with this assignment. Would you prefer to do something else for a while and go back through the thread when you've more time? I'll still be here.
"consequence of a variance for a probability." and " It will have the same order of magnitude as N.". I feel like I'm sitting in a rowboat in the middle of the Atlantic ocean when reading this, haha!
I'm sorry. I've been skimming through your posts too often to count. I agree, tonight I've maybe not read your posts thoroughly (which is rude, since you put aside time to help me, so I apologize for that), but earlier this week I was struggling to understand it all. But I'm on a deadline. The assignment has to be delivered in 6 hours, and it's 05:53am here, so I have not much time haha. Oh well, I know where to find(pester) you when I'll receive my next assignment. ;)