zetafunction
- 371
- 0
http://arxiv1.library.cornell.edu/PS_cache/math/pdf/0102/0102031v10.pdf and http://arxiv1.library.cornell.edu/PS_cache/math/pdf/0102/0102031v1.pdf
what do you think ?
Author defines 2 operators D_{+} and D_{-} so they satisfy the properties D_{+} = D^{*}_{-} D_{-} = D^{*}_{+}
D_{+} =x\frac{d}{dx}+ \frac{dV}{dx}
D_{-} =-x\frac{d}{dx}+ \frac{dV}{dx}
If we define the Hamiltonian H= D_{+}D_{-} this Hamiltonian would be Hermitian
and the energies would be E_{n}= s_{n} (1-s_{n}) , here 's' are the zeros for the Riemann zeta function , so since the eigenvalues are real s(1-s) is real ONLY whenever ALL the zeros have real part 1/2 but ¿is this true ? , have this man proved Riemann HYpothesis ?
what do you think ?
Author defines 2 operators D_{+} and D_{-} so they satisfy the properties D_{+} = D^{*}_{-} D_{-} = D^{*}_{+}
D_{+} =x\frac{d}{dx}+ \frac{dV}{dx}
D_{-} =-x\frac{d}{dx}+ \frac{dV}{dx}
If we define the Hamiltonian H= D_{+}D_{-} this Hamiltonian would be Hermitian
and the energies would be E_{n}= s_{n} (1-s_{n}) , here 's' are the zeros for the Riemann zeta function , so since the eigenvalues are real s(1-s) is real ONLY whenever ALL the zeros have real part 1/2 but ¿is this true ? , have this man proved Riemann HYpothesis ?
Last edited by a moderator: