Algebra question involving prime numbers

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a proof involving prime numbers, specifically addressing the inequality pn+1 ≤ p1p2...pn + 1. Participants are exploring the implications of this inequality and its relation to the infinitude of prime numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the structure of the proof, referencing Euclid's method for demonstrating the infinitude of primes. There are attempts to clarify the reasoning behind the assumptions made about prime factors and the implications of the inequality.

Discussion Status

The conversation is active, with participants providing guidance and clarifications. Some have expressed confusion about specific terms and the reasoning process, while others have offered corrections and suggestions for refining the argument.

Contextual Notes

There is an ongoing examination of assumptions regarding the nature of prime numbers and the setup of the problem, particularly concerning the definition of N and its relationship to the primes listed.

Darkiekurdo
Messages
111
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Let the prime numbers, in order of magnitude, be p1, p2 ... Prove that pn+1 ≤ p1p2...pn + 1

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


I have no idea how to start. I think it involves reductio ad absurdum.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Look up Euclid's proof that there are an infinite number of primes. You can adapt it directly.
 
Okay. So we want to show that there are infinitely many prime numbers. Let's assume that there are only a finity amount of prime numbers which we'll label as p1, p2, ..., pn.

Now let's consider some number, N, which is obtained by multiplying all prime numbers and adding 1:

N = p1p2 ... pn + 1.

N must have a prime factor. This prime factor must be one of p1, p2, ..., pn, because they are all the prime numbers. But this causes a contradiction since N leaves a remainder of 1 when divided by any of the prime numbers.

Conclusion: there are infinitely many prime numbers.

----

Now let's go to our problem: we want to show that pn+1 ≤ p1p2 ... pn + 1.

Let's assume it is false, so: pn+1 ≥ p1p2 ... pn + 1.

Now consider the number N ≥ p1p2 ... pn + 1 where N = pn+1.

This number must have a prime factor, so we will have to divide by a prime number which is one of p1, p2, ..., pn.

But we can't do this because this leaves a remainder of 1, which leads to a contradiction.Is it something like this? Sorry for the long post but this way I can summarise everything up for myself.
 
You're off to a good start. But the end is a little muddled. Call M=(p1p2...pn)+1. M has a prime factor, call it p, that is NOT one of the p1...pn. Good so far. Since p=pj for some j, it must be that j>n. Ok so far? Since you are listing the primes in ascending order it follows that p=pj>=pn+1. Since p is a factor of M, p<=M. So pn+1<=p<=M.
 
What is pj, a prime number? And why does it follow that j>n?
 
Darkiekurdo said:
Now consider the number N ≥ p1p2 ... pn + 1 where N = pn+1.

This number must have a prime factor …

Hi Darkiekurdo! :smile:

No … N = pn+1 is prime, isn't it (it's the next prime after pn)? :redface:

You need to consider N - 1. :smile:
 
Darkiekurdo said:
What is pj, a prime number? And why does it follow that j>n?

Read what I wrote carefully. pj is a prime number that divides M. It's not one of p1...pn. So j>n.
 
Ah I see it now. Thanks to the both of you!
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
4K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
Replies
10
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 18 ·
Replies
18
Views
3K