Alternative form of Reynold's number

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the relationship between the Reynolds number and its inverse, specifically how to express π1 as a function of π2. Participants clarify that π1 represents the Reynolds number, while π2 is its inverse. The correct formulation is established as 1/Re = F/(ρD²V²), where F denotes viscous forces. The Reynolds number is confirmed to be dimensionless, ensuring that both the numerator and denominator share the same fundamental dimensions.

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Homework Statement


in the third picture , we know that π2 can be written as function of π1 , where π2 is inverse of reynold number , how if i want to change it to π1 = function of π2 , can i write it as (Reynold number ) = F / ρ (D^2)(v^2) ?

p/s : π1 is actually inverse of reynold number

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


IMO , for π1 = function of π2 , it is also (Reynold number ) = f (F / ρ (D^2)(v^2) ) ... we should write it as reynold number instead of inverse of reynold number , am i right ?
 

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What does upper case phi double prime stand for?

Φ'' (Re) = FD/ρD2V2
 
David Lewis said:
What does upper case phi double prime stand for?

Φ'' (Re) = FD/ρD2V2
I think the author means stand for function...
 
David Lewis said:
What does upper case phi double prime stand for?

Φ'' (Re) = FD/ρD2V2
do u have any idea now ?
 
anyone know the answer?
 
OK. If Φ represents a function then double prime would normally indicate the second derivative of that function.
 
David Lewis said:
OK. If Φ represents a function then double prime would normally indicate the second derivative of that function.
can i write it as (Reynold number ) = F / ρ (D^2)(v^2) ?

or , it should be 1/ reynold number = F / ρ (D^2)(v^2) ?
which one is correct ?
 
1/Re = F/ρD2V2

where F = viscous forces
 
David Lewis said:
1/Re = F/ρD2V2

where F = viscous forces
is it wrong to write it as (Reynold number ) = F / ρ (D^2)(v^2) ?
is there a need to change 1/ Re to Re for π1 in this case
P/s : π1 = function of ( π2 , π3 )
 
  • #10
The Reynolds number is dimensionless, so the numerator and denominator will have the same fundamental dimensions (M, L, T).

In aeronautics, the denominator (viscous forces) is smaller than the numerator (inertial forces) -- possibly 5 or 6 orders of magnitude smaller -- which makes Re a large number.
 
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  • #11
David Lewis said:
The Reynolds number is dimensionless, so the numerator and denominator will have the same fundamental dimensions (M, L, T).

In aeronautics, the denominator (viscous forces) is smaller than the numerator (inertial forces) -- possibly 5 or 6 orders of magnitude smaller -- which makes Re a large number.
So, no matter pi 1 is Reynold number = ( pi 2 , pi3) or pi 1 is 1/ reynold number d= ( pi2, pi3) are correct??
 
  • #12
2 = FD/ρD2V2

What do ∏1 and ∏3 equal?
 

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