Understanding the Need to Change π3 to π3' in Buckingham Theorem

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the necessity of changing π3 to π3' in the context of the Buckingham Theorem, specifically regarding the Reynolds number. Participants argue that while π1 can be expressed as a function of π2 and π3, it can also be represented with π3' without altering the fundamental relationship. The consensus indicates that switching to π3' does not provide a clear advantage, as the function remains valid regardless of the specific form of π3 used.

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Homework Statement


why there is a need to change π3 to π3 ' (which is inverse of reynold number)? (in 2nd picture)

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


why can we do so ? i was told that π1 = f( π2 , π3 , ...)
if we use π3' , which is this will change the original meaning of π1 = f( π2 , π3 , ...) , am i right ? IMO, this is wrong , there's no need to change π1 = f( π2 , π3 , ...) 3 to π1 = f( π2 , π3 , ...) 3 ' ...
can someone explain on it ?
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If π1 is a function of π2 and π3 then it is also true that it is a function of π2 and π3-1. It's just a different function.
Until you have locked in how f is defined, you are free to choose how to define it.
That said, I don't see the advantage here in switching from π3 to π3-1.
 

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