Alternative form of Reynold's number

  • #1
678
4

Homework Statement


in the third picture , we know that π2 can be written as function of π1 , where π2 is inverse of reynold number , how if i want to change it to π1 = function of π2 , can i write it as (Reynold number ) = F / ρ (D^2)(v^2) ?

p/s : π1 is actually inverse of reynold number

Homework Equations




The Attempt at a Solution


IMO , for π1 = function of π2 , it is also (Reynold number ) = f (F / ρ (D^2)(v^2) ) ... we should write it as reynold number instead of inverse of reynold number , am i right ?
 

Attachments

  • 01.jpg
    01.jpg
    2.4 KB · Views: 321
  • 02.jpg
    02.jpg
    1.4 KB · Views: 314
  • 03.PNG
    03.PNG
    77.6 KB · Views: 366
  • #2
What does upper case phi double prime stand for?

Φ'' (Re) = FD/ρD2V2
 
  • #3
What does upper case phi double prime stand for?

Φ'' (Re) = FD/ρD2V2
I think the author means stand for function...
 
  • #4
What does upper case phi double prime stand for?

Φ'' (Re) = FD/ρD2V2
do u have any idea now ?
 
  • #5
anyone know the answer?
 
  • #6
OK. If Φ represents a function then double prime would normally indicate the second derivative of that function.
 
  • #7
OK. If Φ represents a function then double prime would normally indicate the second derivative of that function.
can i write it as (Reynold number ) = F / ρ (D^2)(v^2) ?

or , it should be 1/ reynold number = F / ρ (D^2)(v^2) ?
which one is correct ?
 
  • #8
1/Re = F/ρD2V2

where F = viscous forces
 
  • #9
1/Re = F/ρD2V2

where F = viscous forces
is it wrong to write it as (Reynold number ) = F / ρ (D^2)(v^2) ?
is there a need to change 1/ Re to Re for π1 in this case
P/s : π1 = function of ( π2 , π3 )
 
  • #10
The Reynolds number is dimensionless, so the numerator and denominator will have the same fundamental dimensions (M, L, T).

In aeronautics, the denominator (viscous forces) is smaller than the numerator (inertial forces) -- possibly 5 or 6 orders of magnitude smaller -- which makes Re a large number.
 
  • #11
The Reynolds number is dimensionless, so the numerator and denominator will have the same fundamental dimensions (M, L, T).

In aeronautics, the denominator (viscous forces) is smaller than the numerator (inertial forces) -- possibly 5 or 6 orders of magnitude smaller -- which makes Re a large number.
So, no matter pi 1 is Reynold number = ( pi 2 , pi3) or pi 1 is 1/ reynold number d= ( pi2, pi3) are correct??
 
  • #12
2 = FD/ρD2V2

What do ∏1 and ∏3 equal?
 

Suggested for: Alternative form of Reynold's number

Replies
2
Views
129
Replies
44
Views
1K
Replies
6
Views
2K
Replies
11
Views
558
Replies
10
Views
656
Replies
14
Views
1K
Back
Top