apeiron said:
OK I can see the source of your confusion. This post -
https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=3539250&postcount=436 - addressed the notion of postive liberties needing to be in place to actually create equal opportunity - the claimed basis of a libertarian democracy.
No. You're making the same mistake I addressed earlier with someone else: you are confusing opportunity and outcome. Acceptance to college is an
outcome. Being judged fairly by an admissions office based on your merit is an
opportunity. This is the reason why the USSC has struck down affirmative action laws. By selecting a person on criteria other than merit (ie, race or social status), they are discriminating against others and violating their equality of opportunity. This is
fact insofar as it was declared as such by the people who get to make that judgement - and, of course, by the people who wrote the Constitution in the first place.
So if the US claims to be an equal opportunity country, how does it measure up? Social mobility would seem a straightforward metric - unless you can argue otherwise.
I did. The fact that you didn't respond to the argument at all implies either you didn't understand or did understand and didn't like how solid the logic was. Perhaps you could actually try responding. Or try another thought experiment:
You go into a building. It has an elevator. You go into the elevator and select a floor and you go there.
You go into another building. It has an elevator and a guard. The guard walks you to the elevator and uses his key card to activate it and select the floor he decides you are going to.
Notice, I didn't even say what floor you are going to. There was no need: The fact of mobility is not coupled to the freedom to be mobile at all in the event of barriers and drivers besides your personal desires (and the guard is both a physical barrier and a driver). In one case you had freedom of mobility, in the other case you didn't, regardless of which floor you ended up on.
What should happen if the US demonstrably falls far short of its professed ideals is the question that comes after it has first been shown that it does.
Again, the ideal is
freedom of mobility, not mobility.
Enforcing true equality of opportunity (even if paid for by wealth redistribution) may be considered a good thing.
Again - you're mixing up the freedom to do something and the outcome of doing something.
But there is no required leap to "socialism".
Considering that's what the word means (forced equality of outcome via forced redistribution), yeah, it kinda does require that leap.
You still might want to argue that free market policies can indeed deliver a universal education - it just hasn't been given the chance to do so as yet in the US.
I wouldn't argue that. I don't see your point.
And then it is yet another question as to whether the long-run outcomes of neo-liberal market policies are even desirable.
Well - at least you used the right word there: "outcome".
Creating equality of opportunity is about what happens at the front-end, regardless of whether people are entering into a more restrained, or more unfettered, competitive environment.
You started off well, then contradicted yourself. Freedom
is equality of opportunity (and by that I mean "opportunty" defined correctly, not misconstrued with outcome).
Whereas financial inequality is a global result, a systems level property, that can be tuned by the balance of freedoms and constraints that apply.
Correct!
Some total package has to be created. But it is important to keep its elements distinct and not just lump it altogether as some parody of "commies vs the free world".
Your characterization aside, this goes back to the point of the thread: Americans like freedom. And many of us recognize that the freedom to succeed on out own also comes with it the chance of failure and as a result, we will tend to end up with poorer poor than other western countries that are more socialist.
Yes, but again defining the objective is different from debating the remedies. The post was pointing out that the US lacks actual equality of opportunity based on the evidence of its social mobility stats - and experts do indeed finger education as the key issue.
Heh - again, again, again: Actual social movement is an outcome, not an opportunity. Measurement of movement is not a measure of opportunity to move.
Yes, we all understand the underclass argument. But your annecdotal analysis - people who are bad deserve what they get - is quite risible.
I am interested here in social/political systems that are effective, not in excusing ones that have failed the test.
Effective at what? Again, the point of the thread and the source of our difference: regardless of your mixing-up of terminology, you favor
equality of outcome, whereas Americans favor
equality of opportunity. When you try to justify, you use a measure of outcome: You cannot say that the US has failed at its goal when you aren't even recognizing that what you are measuring isn't tied to the goal!
The answer you hear is that's all right because in the US, everyone is still freer, happier, wealthier, healthier, more educated that other comparison nations. The good stuff still trickles down. Being at the bottom of the US pile is still better than...blah, blah, blah.
I don't really care. I see all political systems as experiments and I am interested in both the evidence of their success, and more particularly their definitions of success - because unless you are measuring the right things, you can't construct the right theories.
Abstract or not, it is the source of the mess you are making here and the point of the thread: Your measure of success isn't what motivates Americans. It doesn't even matter if your measure is the better one or not: the point of this question was to ask what drives Americans.