MHB An integral representation of the Hurwitz zeta function

AI Thread Summary
The Hurwitz zeta function, defined for Re(a) > 0 and Re(s) > 1, generalizes the Riemann zeta function, with the relationship zeta(s) = zeta(s,1). It can be analytically continued to all complex values of s except s = 1. An integral representation of the Hurwitz zeta function is presented, which simplifies its derivation using contour integration. This representation leads to a connection with the gamma function, revealing that Gamma(a) can be expressed in terms of the Hurwitz zeta function's derivative. The discussion highlights the significance of this representation, noting its rarity in literature.
polygamma
Messages
227
Reaction score
0
For $ \text{Re} (a) >0$ and $\text{Re} (s)>1$, the Hurwitz zeta function is defined as $ \displaystyle \zeta(s,a) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(a+n)^{s}} $.

Notice that $\zeta(s) = \zeta(s,1)$.

So the Hurwitz zeta function is a generalization of the Riemann zeta function.

And just like the Riemann zeta function, the Hurwitz zeta function can be continued analytically to all complex values of $s$ excluding $s=1$.

One way to see this is an integral representation that generalizes the one I recently posted for the Riemann zeta function.

$\displaystyle \zeta(s,a) = 2 \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\sin (s \arctan \frac{t}{a} )}{(a^{2}+t^{2})^{s/2} (e^{2 \pi t}-1)} \ dt + \frac{1}{2a^{s}} + \frac{a^{1-s}}{s-1} $

The derivation of this integral representation shouldn't be that much different.

But since this representation is stated almost nowhere, I thought it would be something interesting to post.EDIT: It actually is stated on Wolfram MathWorld.
 
Last edited:
Mathematics news on Phys.org
Using contour integration makes the derivation/proof so much easier.
 
You can derive a simple yet exotic-looking representation of the gamma function from this integral representation of the Hurwitz zeta function.$$ \frac{\partial }{\partial s} \zeta(s,a) \Big|_{s=0} = \zeta'(0,s) = 2 \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\arctan (\frac{t}{a})}{e^{2 \pi t}-1} \ dt - \frac{\log a}{2} + a \log a -a $$Binet's integral formula once again states $$ \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\arctan \left( \frac{x}{z} \right)}{e^{2 \pi x} -1} \ dx = \ln \Gamma(z) - \left( z- \frac{1}{2} \right) \ln z + z - \frac{\ln (2 \pi)}{2} $$So

$$ \zeta'(0,a) = \log \Gamma(a) - a \log a + \frac{\log a}{2} + a - \frac{\log (2 \pi)}{2} - \frac{\log a}{2} + a \log a -a = \ln \Gamma(a) - \frac{\log (2 \pi)}{2}$$

$$ \implies \Gamma(a) = \sqrt{2 \pi} e^{\zeta'(0,a)} $$(Speechless)

I think my brain just exploded a little bit.
 
Nicely done, RV! (Clapping)

I think I might have recommended this link before, but just in case, the following paper of Adamchik contains quite a few integrals analogous to the one above...

http://arxiv.org/pdf/math/0308086v1.pdf
 
Thread 'Video on imaginary numbers and some queries'
Hi, I was watching the following video. I found some points confusing. Could you please help me to understand the gaps? Thanks, in advance! Question 1: Around 4:22, the video says the following. So for those mathematicians, negative numbers didn't exist. You could subtract, that is find the difference between two positive quantities, but you couldn't have a negative answer or negative coefficients. Mathematicians were so averse to negative numbers that there was no single quadratic...
Thread 'Unit Circle Double Angle Derivations'
Here I made a terrible mistake of assuming this to be an equilateral triangle and set 2sinx=1 => x=pi/6. Although this did derive the double angle formulas it also led into a terrible mess trying to find all the combinations of sides. I must have been tired and just assumed 6x=180 and 2sinx=1. By that time, I was so mindset that I nearly scolded a person for even saying 90-x. I wonder if this is a case of biased observation that seeks to dis credit me like Jesus of Nazareth since in reality...
Thread 'Imaginary Pythagoras'
I posted this in the Lame Math thread, but it's got me thinking. Is there any validity to this? Or is it really just a mathematical trick? Naively, I see that i2 + plus 12 does equal zero2. But does this have a meaning? I know one can treat the imaginary number line as just another axis like the reals, but does that mean this does represent a triangle in the complex plane with a hypotenuse of length zero? Ibix offered a rendering of the diagram using what I assume is matrix* notation...
Back
Top