Analysis question -- Aren't all prime numbers not a product of primes?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic, which asserts that every integer \( n \geq 2 \) can be expressed as a product of prime numbers, excluding the units \( \pm 1 \). Participants clarify that while prime numbers themselves can be viewed as products (e.g., \( p = p \)), the lemma specifically refers to proper products without units. The confusion arises from the interpretation of prime numbers in relation to the lemma, emphasizing that the theorem does not apply to the number 1, which is not considered a product of primes.

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Clara Chung
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Homework Statement


Screenshot_20171005-233019.png


I don't understand the lemma.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Isn't all prime number not a product of primes? The lemma doesn't make sense to me... Moreover, if m=2, m-1 is smaller than 2, the inequality also doesn't make sense. Please help me
 
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Clara Chung said:

Homework Statement


View attachment 212381

I don't understand the lemma.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Isn't all prime number not a product of primes? The lemma doesn't make sense to me... Moreover, if m=2, m-1 is smaller than 2, the inequality also doesn't make sense. Please help me
The Lemma states that all integers are a product of primes. Of course you have to rule out the units ##\pm 1## as one can always add arbitrary many of them. This would make no sense. Similar it isn't important to treat positive and negative numbers separately, so the condition ##\ge 2## makes sense. I do not understand what you mean by "all prime number a product of primes". It is, if you consider ##p=p## as a product, but here proper products without units are meant.
 
fresh_42 said:
The Lemma states that all integers are a product of primes. Of course you have to rule out the units ##\pm 1## as one can always add arbitrary many of them. This would make no sense. Similar it isn't important to treat positive and negative numbers separately, so the condition ##\ge 2## makes sense. I do not understand what you mean by "all prime number a product of primes". It is, if you consider ##p=p## as a product, but here proper products without units are meant.
If prime number is not products of primes, how come the lemma is correct?...
 
Yes, ##n=1\cdot p## or ##n=p## count as product in its rigor meaning.

Formally it says that every integer ##n\geq 2## can be written as ##n=\prod {p_i}^{m_i}## with primes ##p_i\; , \;m_i \in \mathbb{N}_0 ## and ## \sum m_i > 0##. This includes ##n=p##, excludes ##1## and doesn't bother about any additional unnecessary factors ##1##. The formulation in words is just this: saying in words what I wrote with symbols. Try to find another wording if you like. It will probably be longer. I would rather bother about the term Lemma because it's usual name is fundamental theorem of arithmetic - at least the existence part of it. (The uniqueness part is missing, and this requires to get rid of all eventual ##1##'s.)
 
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