Another question about tensor derivatives

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maverick280857
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I just wanted to confirm if the following calculation is correct:

If,

[tex]F^{\mu\nu} = \partial^{\mu}A^{\nu}-\partial^{\nu}A^{\mu}[/tex]

then

[tex]\frac{\partial F_{\mu\nu}}{\partial[\partial_{0}A_{\rho}]} = \delta_{\mu}^{0}\delta_{\nu}^{\rho}-\delta_{\nu}^{0}\delta_{\mu}^{\rho}[/tex]
 
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maverick280857 said:
I just wanted to confirm if the following calculation is correct:

If,

[tex]F^{\mu\nu} = \partial^{\mu}A^{\nu}-\partial^{\nu}A^{\mu}[/tex]

then

[tex]\frac{\partial F_{\mu\nu}}{\partial[\partial_{0}A_{\rho}]} = \delta_{\mu}^{0}\delta_{\nu}^{\rho}-\delta_{\nu}^{0}\delta_{\mu}^{\rho}[/tex]

Yes.
 
From this, we can show that the momenta conjugate to [itex]A_{\mu}[/itex] treated as fields, is

[tex]\Pi^{\mu} = F^{\mu 0}[/tex]

and hence

[tex]\Pi^{0} = F^{00} = 0[/tex]

What is the physical significance of this result, other than the fact that we cannot use this to solve for the [itex]\dot{A}_{\mu}[/itex]'s?

Edit: Now, if I choose a gauge such that [itex]A^{0} = 0[/itex]. Then [itex]\Pi^{\mu} = -\partial^{0}A^{\mu} = \partial_{0}A^{\mu}[/itex]?
 
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is [itex]A^0[/itex] a valid gauge choice? That's E = 0 isn't it?
 
Peeter said:
is [itex]A^0[/itex] a valid gauge choice? That's E = 0 isn't it?

Yes, I wonder. Its given as a question in the book.
 
If [itex]\Phi[/itex] is a scalar field, what does

[tex]\dot{\Phi}[/tex]

denote?

Is it

[tex]\partial_{0}\Phi[/tex]

or

[tex]\partial^{0}\Phi[/tex]

?
 
I'd guess it's always index lower. If working with a -+++ metric you'd have

[tex] \partial^0 \Phi = -\partial_0 \Phi = -\frac{\partial \Phi}{c\partial t}[/tex]

which I don't think makes much sense to use as this Dot operator. You
could get away with index up for this time derivative only if using a +--- metric.
 
Ok, the confusion stems from the computation of the momentum conjugate to [itex]\varphi[/itex], the Klein Gordon field. The Lagrangian is

[tex]\mathcal{L} = \frac{1}{2}\partial^{\mu}\varphi\partial_{\mu}\varphi -\frac{1}{2}m^2\varphi^2[/tex]

You can have "two kinds" of conjugate momenta

[tex]\partial^{0}\varphi[/itex]<br /> <br /> or<br /> <br /> [tex]\partial_{0}\varphi[/itex]<br /> <br /> The first term [itex]\Pi\dot{\varphi}[/itex] of the Hamiltonian ([itex]\mathcal{H} = \Pi\dot{\varphi} - \mathcal{L}[/itex]) should be<br /> <br /> [tex]\partial_{0}\varphi\partial^{0}\varphi[/tex]<br /> <br /> or<br /> <br /> [tex]\partial^{0}\varphi\partial_{0}\varphi[/tex]<br /> <br /> Is there a notational ambiguity here?[/tex][/tex]
 
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