- #1
stockzahn
Homework Helper
Gold Member
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Dear all,
I cannot figure out my mistake with this thought experiment:
Consider a ferromagnetic material (e.g.iron) in a magnetic field - or just any iron anywhere, since the range of magnetic fields is infinite. Between the ferromagnetic material and (permanent) magnets potential energy is stored. By heating and/or a metallurgic treatment, the iron is transformed into an austenitic steel and therefore loosing its ferromagnetic properties. What happened to the potential energy - it seems to have vanished?
Does the metallurgic treatment require more energy for the rearrangement of the molecule lattice if performed in a strong magnetic field? If this is the case, what happens with this additional energy, if the magnet is removed during the steel is austenitic and then becomes ferritic again (e.g. by cooling down)?
Unfortunately I couldn't find an explanation in the web nor in my books.
Thanks in advance,
stockzahn
I cannot figure out my mistake with this thought experiment:
Consider a ferromagnetic material (e.g.iron) in a magnetic field - or just any iron anywhere, since the range of magnetic fields is infinite. Between the ferromagnetic material and (permanent) magnets potential energy is stored. By heating and/or a metallurgic treatment, the iron is transformed into an austenitic steel and therefore loosing its ferromagnetic properties. What happened to the potential energy - it seems to have vanished?
Does the metallurgic treatment require more energy for the rearrangement of the molecule lattice if performed in a strong magnetic field? If this is the case, what happens with this additional energy, if the magnet is removed during the steel is austenitic and then becomes ferritic again (e.g. by cooling down)?
Unfortunately I couldn't find an explanation in the web nor in my books.
Thanks in advance,
stockzahn