Applying the parallel axis theorem to find inertia

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the moment of inertia of a uniform rigid rod of length L and mass M, specifically about an axis perpendicular to the rod through one end. Participants are examining the application of the parallel axis theorem in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply the parallel axis theorem but expresses confusion regarding the use of the moment of inertia about the center of mass (Icm) for an axis at the end of the rod. Other participants request calculations and clarify the application of the theorem, questioning the validity of substituting Icm from a different axis.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging in clarifying the application of the parallel axis theorem. Some have provided calculations, while others are questioning the assumptions made regarding the moment of inertia values used. There is a focus on ensuring that the correct moment of inertia is applied based on the specified axis.

Contextual Notes

There appears to be confusion regarding the definitions and applications of moment of inertia for different axes, particularly in relation to the parallel axis theorem. Participants are navigating through the implications of using Icm from a different axis than the one specified in the problem.

vetgirl1990
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Homework Statement


Calculate the moment of inertia of a uniform rigid rod of length L and mass M, about an axis perpendicular to the rod through one end.

Homework Equations


Parallel axis theorem: I = Icm + MD2
Long thin rod with rotation axis through centre: Icm = 1/12 ML2
Long thin rod with rotation axis through end: I = 1/3 ML2

The Attempt at a Solution



I know this is a straightforward substitution problem into the parallel axis theorem EQN.
However, for this question, I'm not sure why the answer key uses Icm of the rotation axis through the CENTRE. The question specifically states that the rotation axis is at the end...

The answer given is I = 1/3ML2;
I have calculated I = 7/12ML2, using the Icm of a long thin rod with the rotation axis through the end.
Calculations:
D = 1/2L, since the centre of mass of a rod is right down the middle
I = Icm + MD2
I = 1/3 ML2 + M(1/2L)2
I = 7/12ML2

To reiterate, I'm just confused about why Icm was used for am axis through the centre, rather than through the end.
 
Last edited:
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Can you show your calculation?
 
azizlwl said:
Can you show your calculation?
Just edited my post with the full calculations.
 
Why Icm[/SUB=1/3ML2. Different from you stated in relevant equations.
 
azizlwl said:
Why Icm[/SUB=1/3ML2. Different from you stated in relevant equations.
I'm not sure which part of the solution you're referring to.
I = Icm + MD2 is the parallel axis theory, and I plugged in I = 1/3 ML2 the Icm component of that equation.
 
vetgirl1990 said:
I'm not sure which part of the solution you're referring to.
I = Icm + MD2 is the parallel axis theory, and I plugged in I = 1/3 ML2 the Icm component of that equation.
You seem to be applying the parallel axis theorem twice over.
The MoI about the rod's centre, axis perpendicular to the rod, is ML2/12. By the parallel axis theorem (or otherwise) the MoI about one end is ML2/12+M(L/2)2=ML2/3. You quoted this as one of your known equations, and it is directly the answer to the question. There is no need to go adding another ML2/4.
Note that the Icm in the parallel axis theorem is the MoI for an axis through the object's mass centre. It is not valid to substitute in there the MoI about any other axis.
 

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