Are Both Definitions of a Cauchy Sequence Truly Equivalent?

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    Cauchy Sequence
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the equivalence of two definitions of a Cauchy sequence in the context of real analysis. Participants are exploring the implications of each definition and the logical connections between them, focusing on the proof of equivalence and the use of mathematical reasoning.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants clarify the first definition of a Cauchy sequence and express uncertainty about proving the converse, specifically how to derive the first definition from the second.
  • One participant suggests that the second definition implies that for all n≥N, the terms are within an open interval around aN, but questions how this leads to the requirement for m in the first definition.
  • Another participant uses the triangle inequality to argue that if |an - aN| < ε/2 and |am - aN| < ε/2, then |an - am| can be shown to be less than ε.
  • There is a discussion about the use of variable notation, with one participant questioning why the subsequence is labeled with "m" instead of "n" and whether the substitution is valid.
  • A later reply emphasizes the importance of logical reasoning in proofs and outlines a structured approach to demonstrating the equivalence of the definitions.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the clarity and implications of the definitions, with some agreeing on the logical steps while others remain uncertain about the connections between the definitions. The discussion does not reach a consensus on the equivalence proof.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the significance of the "for all" quantifier in the definitions, which plays a central role in the proof structure. There are unresolved questions regarding the assumptions made in the proofs and the implications of variable substitution.

kingwinner
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"Definition: A sequence of real numbers (an) is Cauchy iff
for all ε>0, there exists N s.t. n≥N and m≥N => |an-am|<ε.

An equivalent definition is:
for all ε>0, there exists N s.t. n≥N => |an-aN|<ε. "
=============================================

I don't exactly see why these definitions are equivalent.

One direction (from 1st one to 2nd one) is clear, we can just take m=N which is clearly ≥N.

But how can we prove the converse (i.e. starting with the 2nd definition, prove the 1st)?

Any help is much appreciated!
 
Last edited:
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|an-aN|<ε means for all n≥N, an is a member of the open interval (aN-ε,aN+ε). Given this, what can deduce whether some bounds (if any) exist for |an-am|, where n,m≥N?
 
D H said:
|an-aN|<ε means for all n≥N, an is a member of the open interval (aN-ε,aN+ε). Given this, what can deduce whether some bounds (if any) exist for |an-am|, where n,m≥N?
I agree with you that:
for all n≥N, an is a member of the open interval (aN-ε,aN+ε)

But I still don't see the connection, how can we get the "m" part in definition 1? (definition 2 doesn't contain any statements about "m")

Thanks!
 
For all ε≥0, there exists N s.t. n≥N => |an-aN|<ε/2. Fix this N. Suppose m≥N. By the triangle inequality, |a_n - a_m| \leq |a_n - a_N| + |a_N - a_m| &lt; \varepsilon.
 
snipez90 said:
For all ε≥0, there exists N s.t. n≥N => |an-aN|<ε/2. Fix this N. Suppose m≥N. By the triangle inequality, |a_n - a_m| \leq |a_n - a_N| + |a_N - a_m| &lt; \varepsilon.
We know that n≥N => |an-aN|<ε/2 (*)

So m≥N means that also |am-aN|<ε/2, right? (i.e. in (*) can we replace n by m?)
Why are we labelling the subscript of the subsequence as "m" now? (i.e. why {am} not {an}?)

thanks.
 
Last edited:
Yes, you can replace n by m if m≥N (you can use any symbol you want as long as it fits the criteria)
 
kingwinner said:
"Definition: A sequence of real numbers (an) is Cauchy iff
for all ε>0, there exists N s.t. n≥N and m≥N => |an-am|<ε.

An equivalent definition is:
for all ε>0, there exists N s.t. n≥N => |an-aN|<ε. "
=============================================

I don't exactly see why these definitions are equivalent.

One direction (from 1st one to 2nd one) is clear, we can just take m=N which is clearly ≥N.

But how can we prove the converse (i.e. starting with the 2nd definition, prove the 1st)?

Any help is much appreciated!


You have:

For all ε>0.there exists a natural No N ,such that:

For all n: n\geq N\Longrightarrow |a_{n}-a_{N}|&lt;\epsilon.................1


For all ε>0,there exists a natural No N such that:

For all n ,for all m: n\geq N,m\geq N\Longrightarrow |a_{n}-a_{m}|&lt;\epsilon.................2

Notice the "for all" expression that is missing in your statements and which will be the central issue in the proof that will follow


And you want to show that (1) implies (2)


LET ε>0,then from (1) we have :

There exists a natural No N such that:

For all n: n\geq N\Longrightarrow |a_{n}-a_{N}|&lt;\epsilon..................3

Since (3) holds for all ,n it will hold for :

a) n=n and b) n=m

The law of logic that allows to do that is called:

Universal Elimination

Hence we have:

n\geq N\Longrightarrow |a_{n}-a_{N}|&lt;\frac{\epsilon}{2}....................4


m\geq N\Longrightarrow |a_{m}-a_{N}|&lt;\frac{\epsilon}{2}...................5


Now ,let : n\geq N ,m\geq N ,and by the law of logic called : M,Ponens and using (4) and (5) we have :


|a_{n}-a_{N}|&lt;\frac{\epsilon}{2}...................6

AND

|a_{m}-a_{N}|&lt;\frac{\epsilon}{2}....................7


HENCE:

|a_{n}-a_{m}| = |a_{n}-a_{N}+a_{N}-a_{m}|\leq |a_{n}-a{N}| + |a_{N} -a_{m}|&lt;\frac{\epsilon}{2} +\frac{\epsilon}{2} = \epsilon


So we have proved (2)


BOTTOM LINE IS:

To get into the mysteries of Analysis ,one need to do proof analysis or to become more formal in the proofs of Analysis
 

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