mitrasoumya
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Do elementary particles have inertial mass in the same way composite objects have? If yes, does it have an impact on the motion or on the forces that act on them?
The discussion revolves around the concept of inertia as it applies to elementary particles, specifically whether they possess inertial mass similar to composite objects, and how this affects their motion and interactions with forces. Participants explore the implications of Newton's laws in the context of subatomic particles and wave functions.
Participants generally agree that elementary particles have inertial mass and that Newton's laws apply to them. However, there are multiple competing views regarding the implications of these concepts, particularly in relation to wave functions and the nature of inertia at the subatomic level.
Participants express uncertainty about the exact nature of inertia and its effects on elementary particles, as well as the relationship between classical mechanics and quantum mechanics, particularly in the context of wave functions.
Thank you. Actually, I am interested about knowing the precise effect of inertia on (individual) particles. For example the role of inertia on an electron when it is made to accelerate or decelerate. I also want to know if that requires a force proportional to the mass of that particle as for composite objects. I want to know the exact way in which inertia (and also gravity) works at the subatomic level. Is there any difference in the "laws of motion" or interaction with forces in the subatomic world compared to the world of composite (visible) objects?DrClaude said:Yes and yes. Do you have any reason to think otherwise?
Yes.mitrasoumya said:I also want to know if that requires a force proportional to the mass of that particle as for composite objects.
For one, there is the Ehrenfest theorem.snorkack said:How do Newton´s laws map to the properties of wave functions?
The wave function is not the electron. It is a probability wave.snorkack said:What does this mean in terms of a wave function in absence of any potential? Plane wave? Are non-plane-wave functions subject to inertia?
One very easy way to go about this, is the bending of electrons by a magnetic field (see for example Thompson's experiment)... There you can actually see the electronsmitrasoumya said:Actually, I am interested about knowing the precise effect of inertia on (individual) particles.