Are q and q' dependent variables in Lagrangian or not?

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The discussion centers on the independence of variables q and q' in the context of the Lagrangian L(q, q'). It argues that while q and q' are functions of time and can be dependent in specific scenarios, they are fundamentally independent when considering the general form of L. The logic compares this relationship to coordinates in space, where independent variables can become dependent under specific conditions, such as the principle of least action leading to the Euler-Lagrange equations. The conclusion emphasizes that the independence of q and q' holds until a specific path or physical law is applied, which then establishes their dependence. Overall, the reasoning aligns with established principles in classical mechanics.
DOTDO
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Hi.

I have thought that the variables q and q' in L = L(q, q') are independent. (q' = dq/dt)

Of course q and q' are functions of time t , but they are only dependent in terms of t .

However, in the sight of general(or abstract? I mean, not specific) functional L(q, q'),

q and q' are just independent variables of L .

Only after L is determined by using calculus of variations, they are dependent.

Here is more detailed logic of mine.
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1a) Think about the coordinates (x, y, z). All x, y and z are independent thus they can make the coordinates. And there are infinite possible functions z = f(x,y).

2a) Let's choose a specific function among those infinite possible functions, say, a line (x, y, z) = (s, s, s)
where s is a parameter. Then, by considering this function, x and y are no longer independent because
x=y on this line.

1b) There is a coordinates (q, q', L). There are infinite possible functions L = L(q, q').
And We don't know what path the particle will follow. When q=1, q' can be 1 or 100. When q=2, q' can be 1.1 or 500. This means that there are infinite possible paths, or physical laws.
On each path q and q' are dependent. But considering all the paths, eventually it means q and q' are independent variables.

2b) In 2a, we chose a specific function. Here, in Lagrangian, it is same to adding a condition, the principle of least action, which yields the Euler-Lagrange equation.
By this condition, a specific Lagrangian L is chosen, which makes q and q' dependent.
And this also means that among those infinite possible paths, we chose a specific path, which can be said that we chose a specific law, Newton's 2nd law, among those infinite possible physical laws.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Is this logic wrong or not?

Please point out where I am wrong. Thank you.
 
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Logic is just fine. Lagrangian has independent variables ##q## and ##\dot q## (and possibly others). Euler-Lagrange equations establish a relationship and you get the equations of motion.

Compare the mechanical energy of a mass on a spring: E is a sum of spring energy, gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy. So the independent variables are ##y## and ##\dot y##.
 
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