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Are water waves indicative of QED?

  1. Mar 19, 2010 #1
    Maybe not.

    I'm just thinking, idly...

    If, under controlled conditions, you blow a steady gentle breeze across the surface of an otherwise perfectly calm body of water, I figure you'd make a ripple of (regular) waves. A steady-state analog input, yet quantized rhythmic output. Do you suppose that is somehow indicative of quantum mechanics at work? ..perhaps a reflection of the fine structure of matter and Planck's constant?

    I just find it interesting; thanks
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 19, 2010 #2
    I have thought this before and came to the conclusion that it must be. The reason we see waves is due to the way in which the water is chemically bonded, which is in turn due to QED. I mean why is it we dont see a square wave or saw wave or some sort of random wave. I dont know for sure but I think it is.
     
  4. Mar 19, 2010 #3
    Instinctively, it's no mystery that when chaos is forced into an orderly march, the transition would have to be a choppy one. [To wit, The perfectly calm body of water is a chaos of individually buzzing/moving molecules and the breeze exerts a force that tends those nearest the surface to move in conform.]

    Maybe most of QED is fairly instinctive.

    Probabilistic clustering is another example I can come up with that is instinctively-grasped. QED is an expression of probabilities, of course.
     
  5. Mar 19, 2010 #4
    This sounds pretty, but isn't very meaningful.

    What do you mean by "quantized" here? It's certainly not the same meaning as in QM.
     
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