Argument of a complex expression

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The discussion centers on computing the argument of the complex expression given by the equation involving exponential terms. Two methods yield different results for the argument, with the first method separating real and imaginary parts leading to one expression, while the second method, using Euler's formula, provides a different result. Participants are questioning the correctness of each method and the reason for the discrepancy in outcomes. One suggestion involves converting the exponential terms to trigonometric functions and multiplying by the complex conjugate of the denominator to simplify the expression. The conversation highlights the complexity of handling arguments in complex analysis and the need for consistent methods to achieve the same result.
roam
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Homework Statement
What is the correct way of computing the argument of the following equation?
Relevant Equations
I am trying to compute the argument ##\Phi## of the equation

$$\frac{r-\tau\exp\left(i\varphi\right)}{1-\tau r\exp\left(i\varphi\right)} \tag{1}$$

which using Euler's equation can also be written in the form

$$\exp\left[i\left(\pi+\varphi\right)\right]\frac{\tau-r\exp\left(-i\varphi\right)}{1-\tau r\exp\left(i\varphi\right)} \tag{2}$$
Problem Statement: What is the correct way of computing the argument of the following equation?
Relevant Equations: I am trying to compute the argument ##\Phi## of the equation

$$\frac{r-\tau\exp\left(i\varphi\right)}{1-\tau r\exp\left(i\varphi\right)} \tag{1}$$

which using Euler's equation can also be written in the form

$$\exp\left[i\left(\pi+\varphi\right)\right]\frac{\tau-r\exp\left(-i\varphi\right)}{1-\tau r\exp\left(i\varphi\right)} \tag{2}$$

(1) If we use the first equation, we can first separate out the real and imaginary parts of the expression by multiplying by the complex conjugate of the denominator

$$\frac{r-\tau\exp\left(i\varphi\right)}{1-\tau r\exp\left(i\varphi\right)}.\frac{1-\tau r\exp\left(-i\varphi\right)}{1-\tau r\exp\left(-i\varphi\right)}=\frac{r-\tau r^{2}\exp\left(-i\varphi\right)-\tau\exp\left(i\varphi\right)+\tau^{2}r}{1-\tau r\left[\exp\left(i\varphi\right)+\exp\left(-i\varphi\right)\right]+\left(\tau r\right)^{2}}$$

$$=\frac{r+\tau^{2}r-\tau\left(r^{2}+1\right)\cos\varphi}{1-\tau r\cos\varphi+\left(\tau r\right)^{2}}+i\frac{-\tau\left(1-r^{2}\right)\sin\varphi}{1-\tau r\cos\varphi+\left(\tau r\right)^{2}}.$$

Since, for a complex number ##z##, ##\text{arg}\left(z\right)=\text{atan }\left[\Im\left(z\right)/\Re\left(z\right)\right]##, we have:

$$\Phi=\text{atan}\left[\frac{-\tau\left(1-r^{2}\right)\sin\varphi}{r+\tau^{2}r-\tau\left(r^{2}+1\right)\cos\varphi}\right].$$

(2) However, the paper I am looking at used the second form (equation (2)), which readily gives:

$$\Phi=\pi+\varphi+\text{atan}\left(\frac{r\sin\varphi}{\tau-r\cos\varphi}\right)+\text{atan}\left(\frac{r\tau\sin\varphi}{1-r\tau\cos\varphi}\right).$$

Clearly, these two answers are very different. Which method is correct, and what is the cause of the discrepancy? Shouldn't we end up with the same expression for the argument regardless of the form we start with?

Any explanation is appreciated.
 
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roam said:
Problem Statement: What is the correct way of computing the argument of the following equation?
Relevant Equations: I am trying to compute the argument ##\Phi## of the equation

$$\frac{r-\tau\exp\left(i\varphi\right)}{1-\tau r\exp\left(i\varphi\right)} \tag{1}$$
Minor point: this is not an equation.
roam said:
which using Euler's equation can also be written in the form

$$\exp\left[i\left(\pi+\varphi\right)\right]\frac{\tau-r\exp\left(-i\varphi\right)}{1-\tau r\exp\left(i\varphi\right)} \tag{2}$$
I would do something different -- replace ##\exp(i\phi)## in expression (1) by ##\cos(\phi) + i\sin(\phi)##, and then multiply by the complex conjugate of the denominator ##(1 + \tau r \exp(i\phi))## over itself.
I haven't worked this through, but that's where I would start.
roam said:
(1) If we use the first equation, we can first separate out the real and imaginary parts of the expression by multiplying by the complex conjugate of the denominator

$$\frac{r-\tau\exp\left(i\varphi\right)}{1-\tau r\exp\left(i\varphi\right)}.\frac{1-\tau r\exp\left(-i\varphi\right)}{1-\tau r\exp\left(-i\varphi\right)}=\frac{r-\tau r^{2}\exp\left(-i\varphi\right)-\tau\exp\left(i\varphi\right)+\tau^{2}r}{1-\tau r\left[\exp\left(i\varphi\right)+\exp\left(-i\varphi\right)\right]+\left(\tau r\right)^{2}}$$

$$=\frac{r+\tau^{2}r-\tau\left(r^{2}+1\right)\cos\varphi}{1-\tau r\cos\varphi+\left(\tau r\right)^{2}}+i\frac{-\tau\left(1-r^{2}\right)\sin\varphi}{1-\tau r\cos\varphi+\left(\tau r\right)^{2}}.$$

Since, for a complex number ##z##, ##\text{arg}\left(z\right)=\text{atan }\left[\Im\left(z\right)/\Re\left(z\right)\right]##, we have:

$$\Phi=\text{atan}\left[\frac{-\tau\left(1-r^{2}\right)\sin\varphi}{r+\tau^{2}r-\tau\left(r^{2}+1\right)\cos\varphi}\right].$$

(2) However, the paper I am looking at used the second form (equation (2)), which readily gives:

$$\Phi=\pi+\varphi+\text{atan}\left(\frac{r\sin\varphi}{\tau-r\cos\varphi}\right)+\text{atan}\left(\frac{r\tau\sin\varphi}{1-r\tau\cos\varphi}\right).$$

Clearly, these two answers are very different. Which method is correct, and what is the cause of the discrepancy? Shouldn't we end up with the same expression for the argument regardless of the form we start with?

Any explanation is appreciated.
 
Mark44 said:
Minor point: this is not an equation.
I would do something different -- replace ##\exp(i\phi)## in expression (1) by ##\cos(\phi) + i\sin(\phi)##, and then multiply by the complex conjugate of the denominator ##(1 + \tau r \exp(i\phi))## over itself.
I haven't worked this through, but that's where I would start.

Hi @Mark44

I tried your suggestion:

$$z:=\frac{r-\tau\exp\left(i\varphi\right)}{1-\tau r\exp\left(i\varphi\right)}=\frac{r-\tau\left(\cos\varphi+i\sin\varphi\right)}{1-\tau r\exp\left(i\varphi\right)}$$

Multiplying with the complex conjugate:

$$\frac{r-\tau\left(\cos\varphi+i\sin\varphi\right)}{1-\tau r\exp\left(i\varphi\right)}.\frac{1+\tau r\exp\left(i\varphi\right)}{1+\tau r\exp\left(i\varphi\right)}$$

$$=\frac{r+\tau r^{2}\exp\left(i\varphi\right)-\left[\tau+\tau^{2}r\exp\left(i\varphi\right)\right]\left(\cos\varphi+i\sin\varphi\right)}{1-\tau^{2}r^{2}\exp\left(2i\varphi\right)}$$

$$=\frac{r+\tau r^{2}\cos\varphi+i\tau r^{2}\sin\varphi-\tau-\tau^{2}r\cos\varphi-i\tau^{2}r\sin\varphi\cos\varphi+\tau^{2}r\sin^{2}\varphi}{1-\tau^{2}r^{2}\exp\left(2i\varphi\right)},$$

which gives:

##\Re\left(z\right)=\frac{r+\tau r^{2}\cos\varphi-\tau-\tau^{2}r\cos\varphi+\tau^{2}r\sin^{2}\varphi}{1-\tau^{2}r^{2}\exp\left(2i\varphi\right)}##
##\Im\left(z\right)=\frac{\tau r^{2}\sin\varphi-i\tau r\sin\varphi\cos\varphi}{1-\tau^{2}r^{2}\exp\left(2i\varphi\right)}##

Therefore,

$$\text{arg}\left(z\right)=\text{atan}\left(\frac{\tau r^{2}\sin\varphi-\tau^{2}r\sin\varphi\cos\varphi}{r+\tau r^{2}\cos\varphi-\tau-\tau^{2}r\cos\varphi+\tau^{2}r\sin^{2}\varphi}\right).$$

Is this reducible to the form for ##\Phi## given in my post #1? I am not sure how it can be manipulated further.
 
roam said:
$$=\frac{r+\tau^{2}r-\tau\left(r^{2}+1\right)\cos\varphi}{1-\tau r\cos\varphi+\left(\tau r\right)^{2}}+i\frac{-\tau\left(1-r^{2}\right)\sin\varphi}{1-\tau r\cos\varphi+\left(\tau r\right)^{2}}.$$
I think this is correct except for a 2 in the denominator that doesn't affect the result.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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