- #1
Frank Einstein
- 170
- 1
Hi everybody, I was doing one asignment form class, I was tasked to prove that in one system, the arimetic mean of FD and BE distributions is equal to MB's distribution for undishtingable particles.
After doing the numbers I found out that it actually was, but I don't know why this happens, can someone explain this to me or point me to a place where I can learn that?
Thanks.
After doing the numbers I found out that it actually was, but I don't know why this happens, can someone explain this to me or point me to a place where I can learn that?
Thanks.