Average of ln(x): Approximating with ln(average of x)

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The discussion centers on whether the average of ln(x) can be approximated by ln(average of x) when x consists of mean and deviational components. The consensus is that this approximation is generally incorrect. The key reason is that the logarithm of a sum does not equal the sum of logarithms. Therefore, the relationship between these two expressions does not hold true. Understanding this distinction is crucial for accurate mathematical analysis.
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Hello

Is it correct to say that average of ln(x) can be approximated by ln(average of x) where x is composed of mean and deviational parts?

Thanks for your help!
 
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In general, no. That's because \log\left(\sum_i x_i\right)\ne\sum_i\log\left(x_i\right).
 
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Thanks!
 
I was reading a Bachelor thesis on Peano Arithmetic (PA). PA has the following axioms (not including the induction schema): $$\begin{align} & (A1) ~~~~ \forall x \neg (x + 1 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A2) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + 1 =y + 1 \to x = y) \nonumber \\ & (A3) ~~~~ \forall x (x + 0 = x) \nonumber \\ & (A4) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + (y +1) = (x + y ) + 1) \nonumber \\ & (A5) ~~~~ \forall x (x \cdot 0 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A6) ~~~~ \forall xy (x \cdot (y + 1) = (x \cdot y) + x) \nonumber...

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