Average value of a function sent to infinity

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The discussion explores the concept of finding the average value of a function over the entire real line, particularly through the use of limits and integrals. It establishes that for a constant function like f(x)=4, the average value remains 4 regardless of the interval chosen, as shown through integration. The conversation also highlights the importance of defining the average value correctly, noting that different methods of averaging may yield different results, depending on the function's properties. The Cauchy Principal Value (CPV) is introduced as a method to evaluate certain improper integrals, such as the integral of sin(x) from negative to positive infinity, which results in zero despite the integral not existing in the traditional sense. Overall, the discussion emphasizes the need for careful consideration of function types and averaging methods in mathematical analysis.
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I was wondering if it would be possible to find the average value of a function with the only condition that x is element of R. For example, could we say that f(x)=4 has an average value of 4 since no matter what values we give for a or b in the integral from a to b of f(x)/(b-a) (b is not equal to a of course), we will obtain an answer of 4? However, if this is true, could it be for other functions as well, perhaps more complicated or colourful? What conditions need to be satisfied?
 
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Recall that the average value of a function which is Riemann integrable on some interval (a,b) is given by:

f_{ave} = \frac{1}{b-a}\int_a^b f(x) dx​

I suppose that one could define an average value of a function over all of \mathbb{R} by, say

f_{ave} = \lim_{L\rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{2L}\int_{-L}^{L} f(x) dx​

so that for f(x)=4 we would have


f_{ave} = \lim_{L\rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{2L}\int_{-L}^{L} f(x) dx = \lim_{L\rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{2L}\int_{-L}^{L} 4 \, dx = \lim_{L\rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{2L}\left[ 4x\right] _{x=-L}^{L} = \lim_{L\rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{2L}\left[ 4L-(-4L)\right] = 4

as expected.
 
But if one defines the average as

\frac{1}{3L}\int_{-2L}^Lf(x)dx

then one should check that the answers agree, or for any other way of averaging. I imagine there will be some condition on the type of f for which this makes sense.
 
Sure, I took the Cauchy Principal Value of the limit whose upper and lower bounds approached their repective infinities seperately.
 
The bounds in the CPV don't go separately: they go together in a particular way. To go separately, you'd need something like:

<br /> \lim_{\substack{a \rightarrow -\infty \\ b \rightarrow +\infty}}<br /> \frac{1}{b-a}\int_a^b f(x) dx


In general, this really does matter. For example:

<br /> CPV \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \sin x \, dx = 0<br />

even though

\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \sin x \, dx

does not exist.
 
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Indeed, I took the CPV of such an integral.
 
Tell me a little more of how the Cauchy Principal Value theorem works for sin(x) integrated from -infinity to positive and how it gives zero. When i evaluate it, i find that it can simply range from -2 to 2. (if you please).
 
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please is such a nice word, isn't it?
 
By definition,

<br /> CPV \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f(x) \, dx<br /> = \lim_{L \rightarrow +\infty} \int_{-L}^{L} f(x) \, dx<br />
 
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Ah, i understand now. Thanks very much!
 
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