Avg. of sum of independent variables

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The discussion focuses on the calculation of the average of the sum of independent random variables. It establishes that the joint probability of multiple variables can be expressed as the product of their individual probabilities. The average of the sum is derived by integrating the product of the variables' probabilities, leading to the conclusion that the expected value of the sum equals the sum of the expected values. The conversation also highlights the necessity of integrating out the independent variables to express the probability of the sum as a single-variable function. This approach confirms compatibility with the original probability distribution.
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Homework Statement


upload_2017-9-11_10-15-19.png


Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


The probability that ##X_1 ## is between ## X_1 ## and ## X_1 + dX_1 ## and ##X_2 ## is between ## X_2 ## and ## X_2 + dX_2 ## and so on till the nth variable is
dP(##X_1,
X_2, ..., X_n) = p ( X_1) p( x_2) p(X_3)...p(X_n) dX_1 dX_2 ...dX_n
\\ dP(Y) = p(Y) dY
\\<Y>= \int Yp(Y) dY
\\ assuming dP(y) =
dP(X_1,
X_2, ..., X_n)
\\= \int ( X_1 +X_2 + ... + X_n) p ( X_1) p( x_2) p(X_3)...p(X_n) dX_1 dX_2 ...dX_n
\\ = \int X_1 p ( X_1)dX_1+ \int X_2 p ( X_2)dX_2+ ...+\int X_n p ( X_n)dX_n
\\= <X_1> + <X_2>+...+<X_n>
\\= n <X>##
Is the assumption o.k?
 
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You are never really using that assumption, you are using
$$
\langle Y \rangle = \int Y(x_1,\ldots,x_n) P(x_1,\ldots, x_n) dx_1 \ldots dx_n.
$$
If you want to express ##P(Y)## as a one-variable function you need to integrate out the ##X_i## variables, essentially
$$
P(Y) = \int \delta(Y-x_1-\ldots-x_n) P(x_1,\ldots,x_n) dx_1 \ldots dx_n.
$$
Note that this leads to
$$
\langle f(Y)\rangle = \int f(y) P(y) dy = \int f(y) \delta(y-x_1-\ldots-x_n) P(x_1,\ldots,x_n) dx_1 \ldots dx_n dy
= \int f(x_1+\ldots+x_n) P(x_1,\ldots,x_n) dx_1 \ldots dx_n,
$$
so it is compatible with the original probability distribution.
 
Thank you for this insight.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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