Bachman's line integral versus classical line integral

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the distinctions between Bachman's line integral and classical line integrals as presented in his work "A Geometric Approach to Differential Forms." Bachman differentiates between integrals of differential 0-forms over R3 and the integrals discussed in Chapter 5, which utilize linear differential forms applicable under Stokes' theorem. The conversation highlights the limitations of nonlinear differential forms, particularly in calculating surface areas, and questions the implications of Bachman's definitions and methodologies regarding line integrals.

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  • Knowledge of orientable manifolds and their significance in differential geometry.
  • Basic concepts of integration in R3, particularly with respect to scalar fields.
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Mathematicians, physicists, and students of differential geometry seeking to deepen their understanding of the distinctions between classical and modern approaches to line integrals and differential forms.

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Bachman's "line integral" versus "classical line integral"

David Bachman A Geometric Approach to Differential Forms
http://arxiv.org/abs/math/0306194

When Bachman talks, in Appendix A, about "classical" line, surface, volume integrals, does he mean integrals of differential 0-forms (scalar fields) over 1-, 2- and 3-dimensional domains of R3. Is this the distinction he's making between the integrals of Appendix A (for which nonlinear differential forms are required) and the kind of line, surface, volume integrals he discussed in Chapter 5 (the kind to which Stokes' theorem applies), in which the integrand was a differential form of the same dimension as the domain of integration (for which linear differential forms suffice)?
 
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Bachman:

"The thing that makes (linear) differential forms so useful is the Generalized Stokes theorem. We don't have anything like this for non-linear forms, but that's not to say that they don't have their uses. For example, there is no differential 2-form on R3 that one can integrate over arbitrary surfaces to find their surface area."

In this thread, following quasar987's suggestion, I integrated a linear differential 2-form on R3 over a surface to find its area, didn't I? What is special about this surface that allowed me to find its area by integrating a linear differential 2-form, and why does Bachman use the same example, a 2-sphere embedded in R3, to demonstrate the need to integrate a nonlinear differential form if one wants to calculate surface area?!

Lee (Introduction to Smooth Manifolds):

Although differential forms are natural objects to integrate on manifolds, and are essential for use in Stokes' theorem, they have the disadvantage of requiring orientable manifolds.

The 2-sphere in R3 is orientable, isn't it? Likewise (the image of) a regular curve, and yet Bachman writes

Finally, we can define what is classically called a line integral as follows

\oint_C f(x,y) \; ds = \int_C f(x,y) \sqrt{dx^2+dy^2}

(The circle an accident? He doesn't mention anything about loops in particular.) Both Bachman and Lee talk about line integrals as one of the motivating applications of linear differential 1-forms, but in these his concluding words, Bachman seems to be going back on that and redefining a line integral as a nonlinear differential form. A whole methodology was developed for pulling back k-forms from a k-dimensional domain in Rn to Rk where they can be treated as ordinary iterated integrals, a methodology which I thought was supposed to streamline and generalise "classical" line, surface, volume integrals; yet here, he seems to be saying that these methods can't be used for the very thing (line, surface, volume integrals) I thought they were designed for.

What is going on here?
 

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