Balancing Charges on Identical Spheres

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the electrostatic interaction between two identical metal spheres with initial charges q1 and q2. Initially, they experience a 2.5N attractive force when 1.0m apart, indicating opposite charges. After charge redistribution, they repel with the same force, suggesting equal charges. The correct approach involves using Coulomb's Law, F = k(q1*q2)/r², and recognizing that after balancing, each sphere carries a charge of (q1 + q2)/2, not (q1 - q2)/2, to maintain the total charge conservation.

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  • Coulomb's Law (F = k*q1*q2/r²)
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Homework Statement




Two identical small metal spheres initially carry charges q_1 and q_2. When they're x=1.0m apart, they experience a 2.5N attractive force. Then they're brought together so charge moves from one to the other until they have the same net charge. They're again placed x=1.0m apart, and now they repel with a 2.5N force.

Homework Equations



F=kq1q2/r^2

The Attempt at a Solution



Alright, so this question seemed pretty easy but my answer isn't making any sense. First I solved for the net charge on the spheres after they had discharged,

F=kq3^2/r^2 ... q3=sqrt(Fr^2/k) = 1.667*10^-5C

Next I assumed that since the two spheres had balanced their charges, the original charges were 1.667*10^-5 +/- x.

Putting this back into the Coulomb's Law equation I got

F=k(1.667*10^-5 - x)(1.667*10^-5 + x)/r^2

But when I solved for x and then tried to sub it back into q1=(1.667*10^-5 - x) and q2=(1.667*10^-5 + x), both q1 and q2 were positive, which would not result in an attractive force.

Help please. =)
 
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Hi Tridius. welcome to PF.
In the first case, F = k*q1*q2/d^2.
In the second case, charge on each sphere is (q1 - q2)/2
So F= k*(q1 - q2)^2/d^2
Can you proceed now?
 
Thanks a lot, this should really help. What I don't understand though is that if the charges are now (q1-q2)/2, then why is the force k(q1-q2)^2/d^2? Where did the 2 in the denominator go?
 
Tridius said:
Thanks a lot, this should really help. What I don't understand though is that if the charges are now (q1-q2)/2, then why is the force k(q1-q2)^2/d^2? Where did the 2 in the denominator go?
The force should be
F = k(q1-q2)^2/4*d^2
 
I don't understand why each charge is (q1-q2)/2.
If it was, then the total charge would be 2*(q1-q2)/2 = q1-q2.
But we know the total charge is q1 + q2.
Looks like the charge on each must be (q1 + q2)/2.
 
Delphi51 said:
I don't understand why each charge is (q1-q2)/2.
If it was, then the total charge would be 2*(q1-q2)/2 = q1-q2.
But we know the total charge is q1 + q2.
Looks like the charge on each must be (q1 + q2)/2.
Since the force is attractive, the charges must be of opposite nature.
 

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