Gokul43201 said:
That's a pretty bizarre definition!
So you really do think he is virtually illiterate? That's pretty bizarre!
Okay, what do you call it if a political commentator appearing on TV to talk about a speech involving the appeasement of Hitler...
Do you need to know the history of the Munich Treaty of 1938 to know that the American Senator's statement regarding Hitler amounted to the false comfort of appeasement? This statement, made as Hitler had already gobbled up Czechoslovakia and was at that moment moving in Poland? Do you really need to know what Chamberlain did wrong in 1939? (it was 1938, BTW) That's just pathetic hit piece journalism.
...shows not a shred of knowledge about the Munich Treaty, the Sudetenland problem, the prevailing opinion on Versailles or anything related to what actually was talked about in 1938, by the appeasers?
And you think this important, WHY? Perhaps James is not such a good political commentator. I certainly wouldn't refer to him regarding history but that is not 'illiterate'. So, why did
you call him virtually illiterate again? Because he didn't know what Chamberlain did wrong in 1939? That was the question, you know. "What did Neville Chamberlain do wrong in 1939?" was the question. He wasn't asked, "What is meant by 'appeasement'?" Only later did Matthews correct himself and stammer, "...or 1938?" Why did Matthews ask a totally unimportant question regarding James' historical knowledge of the term 'appeasement' and how it referred to what Chamberlain did wrong in 1939 (errr... 1938)? Anyway, that's pretty far from what I would consider to be 'virtually illiterate' so naturally I assumed that it was meant to be a pejorative.
It may all be true, but absolutely none of it answered the question.
Oh, but it did. Just not to Matthews' (or your) satisfaction. Was it more important to know what Chamberlain did wrong in 1939 (errrr... 1938) or that appeasement is giving something to your adversary to keep him satisfied?
Matthews could have asked, "What do you think Bush meant by 'the false comfort of appeasement' when he called the American Senator's statement, "If I had only talked to Hitler, all this might have been avoided" the "false comfort of appeasement?" But that probably would have been a little too 'fair and balanced', eh?
Yes, I think it would have been more accurate for it to have ended with James never acknowledging that he was ignorant about the subject he was appearing on TV to talk about (and that's what he went to to do with his follow up about what he didn't know.)
He said that ""I don't know what the President (Bush) was referring to when he talked about what was being said in 1939." (errrr... 1938) You think that this meant that he didn't know why Chamberlain was an appeaser? Perhaps you believe that it is most important that the commentator not actually comment on Bush's statement but on the history of Chamberlain's utter failure as a leader and negotiator? Yeah, that's the part that's important... the history of the Sudetenland problem and the treaty that resulted in the labelling of Chamberlain as an "appeaser" and his self-described methods "appeasement". Quite histrionic, if you ask me...