I Berry phase in the Brillouin zone

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As mentioned in the literatures, the definition of the Berry phase is meaningful only for non-orthogonal states. However, in the topological insulators it is defined for quantum states of a matter which are orthogonal. How to justify this inconsistency?
 
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Of course, in the book “A Short Course on Topological Insulators” by János K. Asbóth et. al. chapter 2, introduces the Berry phase based on the relative phase of two non-orthogonal quantum states. Then, in chapter 3 (Eq. 14), introduces the bulk electric polarization as the Berry phase of the occupied band across the Brillouin zone. I appreciate any help.
 
If I remember correctly, you are comparing orbitals within one lattice cell for different k values. These orbitals are not orthogonal. This is not in conflict with the global many electron states being orthogonal. Let ##0< |\langle \phi_1| \phi_2\rangle| <1##. Then the two local functions ##\phi_{1/2}## are not orthogonal. But the overlap of the total function of N cells goes as ##|\langle \phi_1| \phi_2\rangle|^N \to 0## if N goes to infinity.
 
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...

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