Beta/F Distribution: Show Y has Beta Dist.

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating that a random variable Y, defined in terms of another random variable W that follows an F-distribution, has a beta distribution. The transformation of W into Y is central to the problem.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the transformation of the F-distributed variable W into Y and discuss the necessary algebraic manipulations to express Y in a suitable form. Some participants question the steps involved in the transformation process.

Discussion Status

There are various attempts to manipulate the expression for Y, with some participants providing algebraic suggestions. While there is no explicit consensus, several lines of reasoning are being explored, and guidance has been offered regarding the transformation process.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of transforming the F-distribution and are considering the implications of the relationships between the variables involved. There are indications of confusion regarding the transformation steps and the assumptions underlying the problem.

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Homework Statement



Let Y = [tex]\frac{1}{1 + \frac{r_1}{r_2}W}[/tex] and W ~ F(r1,r2). Show that Y has a beta distributoin

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



I know that
fa9e3f936a51e5d79665430fbed0d961.png
and
e828dff3279f65f494946ea0e3d00d75.png
, then Y has a beta distribution.

Not sure what to do next.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
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If W is F(m,n), then 1/W is F(n,m).
 
Sorry, but I'm still having problems with the tranformation.
 
Just multiply the numerator and denominator of [tex]\frac{1}{1 + \frac{r_1}{r_2}W}[/tex] by an appropriate quantity, to put it in the form [tex]\frac{\frac{\nu_1}{\nu_2}X}{\frac{\nu_1}{\nu_2}X + 1}[/tex]
 
So:

[tex]\frac{1}{1 + \frac{r_1}{r_2}W}\frac{\frac{r_2}{r_1}\frac{1}{W}}{\frac{r_2}{r_1}\frac{1}{W}} = \frac{\frac{r_2}{r_1}\frac{1}{W}}{\frac{r_2}{r_1}\frac{1}{W} + 1} = \frac{\frac{r_1}{r_2}W}{\frac{r_1}{r_2}W + 1}[/tex]
 
So:

[tex]\frac{1}{1 + \frac{r_1}{r_2}W}\frac{\frac{r_2}{r_1}\frac{1}{W}}{\frac{r_2}{r_1}\frac{1}{W}} = \frac{\frac{r_2}{r_1}\frac{1}{W}}{\frac{r_2}{r_1}\frac{1}{W} + 1}[/tex]

Yes. Since 1/W is F(r2,r1), you are done.

[tex]= \frac{\frac{r_1}{r_2}W}{\frac{r_1}{r_2}W + 1}[/tex]

No.
 
so I can just leave it as [tex]\frac{\frac{r_2}{r_1}\frac{1}{W}}{\frac{r_2}{r_1} \frac{1}{W} + 1}[/tex] ?
 
I would substitute X for 1/W.
 
Thanks for the help.
 

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