amcavoy
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I was just looking at the definitions of these words, and it reminded me of some things from linear algebra. I was just wondering: Is a bijection the same as an isomorphism?
The discussion revolves around the concepts of bijections, injections, surjections, and isomorphisms in the context of mathematics, particularly focusing on their definitions and relationships. Participants explore these ideas through various mathematical structures, including sets, groups, rings, and vector spaces.
Participants do not reach a consensus on the definitions and relationships between bijections, injections, surjections, and isomorphisms. Multiple competing views remain, particularly regarding the conditions under which a bijection can be considered an isomorphism.
Limitations in the discussion include varying definitions of isomorphism based on the mathematical context, as well as the potential for confusion regarding the properties of homomorphisms and their inverses.
Icebreaker said:A mapping f:A->B is injective if it's one-to-one. But elements of B may be unmapped. f is surjective if every element of B is mapped from some a in A by f(a). f is bijective if it's surjective and injective simultaneously.
It's not an isomorphism because an isomorphism is a function between two rings that preserves the binary operations of those rings, on top of which the function is bijective.
matt grime said:You're not too far off, tokomak; strictly speaking an *invertible* homomorphism is an isomorphism, but if it helps you can use the bijective idea instead as it will suffice for most things you'll meet in undergraduate mathematics.
Hurkyl said:Don't forget the bijective homomorphisms whose inverses aren't homomorphisms!
No, but there are invertible homomorphisms which are not bijective.
Yes! In some cases, the inverse is automatically a homomorphism, but not in all. For example, consider the identity map \bar{\mathbb{R}} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} where I am using \bar{\mathbb{R}} to denote the discrete topology. This is clearly an invertible map, but it is not a homeomorphism. (Which is what we call isomorphisms when doing topology)Well, for a mapping to be an isomorphism, is it required that it's inverse be a homomorphism?
Hurkyl said:Don't forget the bijective homomorphisms whose inverses aren't homomorphisms!