Bijection proof for set products

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the Cartesian product of two sets, specifically A1 × T and A2 × T, is bijective given that A1 is bijective to A2. Participants are exploring the implications of this relationship and how to construct a suitable bijection.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to establish a bijection between A1 × T and A2 × T using the existing bijection f between A1 and A2. Questions arise regarding the injectivity of the proposed functions and the necessity of T being bijective to itself.

Discussion Status

There is an active exploration of potential functions that could serve as bijections, with some participants offering hints and suggestions. The discussion is ongoing, with no explicit consensus reached on the best approach to demonstrate the bijection.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the properties of the sets involved, particularly the nature of T and its relationship to itself in the context of bijections. The focus is on finding a single bijection rather than all possible bijections.

The1TL
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Let A1, A2, T be non-empty sets such that A1 is bijective to A2.

Show that A1 × T is bijective to A2 × T



So far I've been able to show that for any b where b is an element of A2, there must be some a within A1 such that f(a) = b. I've been able to do the same for proving injectivity between A1 and A2. I just can't figure out how to apply this to A1 x T and A2 x T.
 
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Let f: A_1 \rightarrow A_2 be a bijection between A_1 and A_2. Can you find a bijection between A_1 \times \ T and A_2 \times \ T?
 
exactly, I am pretty sure I need to prove that for some function g: A1 x T --> A2 x T , any (a2, t2) that is an element of A2 x T must have some element (a1,t1) in A1 x T such that g(a1,t1) = (a2,t2). I am just not sure how to show this. I have the same problem with showing the injective aspect of the bijection proof.
 
Here's another hint: If T is any non-empty set, you can always find a bijection between T and itself.
 
given the bijection f, is k:A1 x T → A2 x T

given by k(a1,t) = (f(a1),t) a bijection?
 
but is it necessarily true that T must be a bijection to itself?
 
isn't the function t→t, for all t in T a bijection? let's give it a name, we'll call it g.

so g(t) = t, for all t in T.

is it unclear to you whether or not this is a bijection?
 
I see how that specific function is a bijection. But I don't see how all functions from T to T would have to be bijections.
 
we don't need to find "all" bijections between A1 xT and A2 x T. just one will do.
 

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