Bilinear mapping between quotient spaces

  • Thread starter Thread starter lineintegral1
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Mapping quotient
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving properties of bilinear mappings between finite-dimensional linear spaces L and M over a field K, specifically addressing the mapping g: L × M → K. The participants confirm that the dimension of the quotient spaces satisfies dim L/L_0 = dim M/M_0, where L_0 and M_0 are the left and right kernels of g, respectively. They emphasize the necessity of demonstrating that the induced mapping g': L/L_0 × M/M_0 → K is well-defined, which hinges on proving that if l + L_0 = l' + L_0 and m + M_0 = m' + M_0, then g(l, m) = g(l', m'). This conclusion is reached through the linearity of g and the properties of the kernels.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of finite-dimensional linear spaces
  • Knowledge of bilinear mappings and their properties
  • Familiarity with quotient spaces and equivalence classes
  • Concept of kernels in linear algebra
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of bilinear mappings in linear algebra
  • Explore the concept of quotient spaces in greater detail
  • Learn about kernels and their implications in linear transformations
  • Investigate examples of induced mappings and their well-definedness
USEFUL FOR

Students and educators in linear algebra, mathematicians focusing on bilinear mappings, and anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of quotient spaces and their applications in vector spaces.

lineintegral1
Messages
77
Reaction score
1
Problem: Let L and M be finite dimensional linear spaces over the field K and let g: L\times M \rightarrow K be a bilinear mapping. Let L_0 be the left kernel of g and let M_0 be the right kernel of g.

a) Prove that dim L/L_0 = dim M/M_0.

b) Prove that g induces the bilinear mapping g': L/L_0 \times M/M_0 \rightarrow K, g'(l+L_0, m+M_0) = g(l,m), for which the left and right kernels are zero.

I am trying to prove b) before a) (I think this would make a) relatively trivial). However, I am still getting used to the notion of quotient spaces as sets of equivalence classes. I am unsure as to how to deal with the bilinear mapping of equivalence classes. All that I have seen so far deal with vector spaces. Perhaps someone can give me some insight as to how to show that this mapping is well defined? How can I visualize this better? My professor is of little help, so I appreciate any insights anyone can give me.

Thanks all!
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
You must prove that if l+L_0=l^\prime +L_0 and m+M_0=m^\prime+M_0, then g^\prime(l+L_0,m+M_0) = g^\prime(l^\prime+L_0,m^\prime+M_0). So you must actually prove g(l,m)=g(l^\prime,m^\prime)...
 
but...this is obvious because g is linear in l and m, and l-l' is in L0 and m-m' is in M0

(g(l,m) = g(l',m') means g(l,m) - g(l',m') = 0.

but g(l,m) - g(l',m') = g(l,m) - g(l',m) + g(l',m) - g(l',m')

= g(l-l',m) + g(l',m-m') =...?)
 
And what do you know about l-l' and m-m' ?
 
we are assuming l + L0 = l' + L0

so l-l' is in 0 + L0 = L0.

the same for m-m', with regard to M0.

we have to have these conditions, for g' to be well-defined as a function

(we are defining g' over cosets, by using g defined on elements.

if we do not have the same image for g(l',m') and g(l,m) when l,l' and m,m'

are in the same cosets of L0 and M0,

g' isn't even a function, much less bilinear).
 
Wow, okay, so that makes it obvious. Thanks for the help guys, I appreciate it. Neat stuff!
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
3K