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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hello,

well, I am totally new to this section of physics so my question may sound ridiculous, but here it is:

When I was reading about the Bohr's atomic model, I learned about the Bohr and Rydberg equations (E=-2,18*10^18*Z^2/n^2 J and 1/λ=RZ^2(1/n1^2-1/n2^2) as well as their proofs. Then I read about the "shaking down" of this atomic model (please excuse my terrible english, I am greek) which I understand but, when I asked a couple of physicists, they told me that the equations remain and just show the largest possibility of an electron to be in that place. Now I get that too. What I don't get is HOW these equations remain intact. I mean the proof uses the assumption that the electron does angular motion and makes use of the formulae Fc=mv^2/r and L=Iω. However, we know now for sure that for l>0 (the azimuthal quantum number) the shape of the orbital discards the theory of the circle orbits.

Every suggestion is welcome!

Thank you!

well, I am totally new to this section of physics so my question may sound ridiculous, but here it is:

When I was reading about the Bohr's atomic model, I learned about the Bohr and Rydberg equations (E=-2,18*10^18*Z^2/n^2 J and 1/λ=RZ^2(1/n1^2-1/n2^2) as well as their proofs. Then I read about the "shaking down" of this atomic model (please excuse my terrible english, I am greek) which I understand but, when I asked a couple of physicists, they told me that the equations remain and just show the largest possibility of an electron to be in that place. Now I get that too. What I don't get is HOW these equations remain intact. I mean the proof uses the assumption that the electron does angular motion and makes use of the formulae Fc=mv^2/r and L=Iω. However, we know now for sure that for l>0 (the azimuthal quantum number) the shape of the orbital discards the theory of the circle orbits.

Every suggestion is welcome!

Thank you!