Boltzmann Factor in QM Language

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The discussion revolves around the Boltzmann Factor's definition in statistical mechanics and its relationship to quantum mechanics (QM). The key point raised is why the probability P(E) does not depend on the quantum state |psi>, despite QM suggesting it should. The distinction between pure and mixed states is highlighted, indicating that the Boltzmann factor applies to ensembles of systems rather than individual states. When a system is prepared in a specific energy eigenstate, the probability of measuring that energy is indeed 1, but this scenario assumes a zero-temperature condition, which contradicts the use of the Boltzmann factor. The interaction with a heat bath at non-zero temperature introduces the necessity of considering mixed states and thermal averages.
andrewm
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Hi,

I'm stuck on "the summit of statistical mechanics" (as Feynman calls it): the definition of the Boltzmann Factor.

The probability of measuring the system with energy E is P(E) = 1/Z * e^-E/kT.

I've taken courses in QM and can't understand why P(E) does not depend on the ket of the system |psi>.

From QM, I want to write down P(Ei) = <psi|Ei><Ei|psi>. So why doesn't 1/Z * e^-E/kT depend on |psi>? Is it a hidden assumption about the nature of the system that all |psi> in the Hilbert Space have P(Ei) equal?

Thanks in advance,
Andrew
 
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The issue lies in the difference between a pure state, which represents an ensemble of identical systems, and a mixed state, which represents an ensemble of systems in different states. So you might want to consider an ensemble of systems in different energy eigenstates, represented by a thermal density matrix. The diagonal components are then the Boltzmann factors.
 
What if I consider a system in a single energy eigenstate?

If the system is prepared in an energy eigenstate, say E1, then surely a measurement of E1 has probability 1 and not 1/Z * e^-E1/kT ?

Or can I not prepare a system that has a definite energy?
 
The "problem" is that you are at non-zero temperature (otrhwise the Boltzmann factor would be 1), meaning you are implicitly assuming that your system is actually interacting with a heat bath of some sort.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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