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Introductory Physics Homework Help
Understanding the Need to Change π3 to π3' in Buckingham Theorem
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[QUOTE="welovephysics, post: 5489112, member: 594896"] [h2]Homework Statement [/h2] why there is a need to change π3 to π3 ' (which is inverse of reynold number)? (in 2nd picture) [h2]Homework Equations[/h2][h2]The Attempt at a Solution[/h2] why can we do so ? i was told that π1 = f( π2 , π3 , ...) if we use π3' , which is this will change the original meaning of [B]π1 = f( π2 , π3 , ...) , am i right ? IMO, this is wrong , there's no need to change [B]π1 = f( π2 , π3 , ...) 3 to [B]π1 = f( π2 , π3 , ...) 3 ' ... can someone explain on it ? [/B][/B][/B][/B] [/QUOTE]
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Introductory Physics Homework Help
Understanding the Need to Change π3 to π3' in Buckingham Theorem
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