C(n,n/2)/(2^(N+1)) > 1/(2*sqrt(n))

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the inequality involving binomial coefficients for even values of n, specifically C(n,n/2)/(2^(N+1)) > 1/(2*sqrt(n)). Participants are exploring the validity of this inequality and its implications using Stirling's approximation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants attempt to derive a lower bound for C(n,n/2) using the provided inequality but find results that do not support the original claim. Some participants suggest analyzing the function R(n) to understand its behavior and bounds.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants questioning the correctness of the original inequality and exploring alternative bounds. Some have provided insights into the behavior of R(n) and its implications, while others seek clarification on the source material related to the problem.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of a specific reference to a book, "Approximation Of Functions By Rivlin," which may contain relevant information for the problem. Participants express a need for assistance with the statement they are trying to prove, indicating potential gaps in the original problem setup.

neginf
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Homework Statement



For n even, C(n,n/2)/(2^(N+1)) > 1/(2*sqrt(n)).

Homework Equations



sqrt(2*pi*k) * k^k * e^-k < k! < sqrt(2*pi*k) * k^k * e^-k * (1 + 1/4*k)

The Attempt at a Solution



Have tried using the inequality to get lower bound for C(n,n/2), but get something smaller than 1/(2*sqrt(n)).
 
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neginf said:

Homework Statement



For n even, C(n,n/2)/(2^(N+1)) > 1/(2*sqrt(n)).

Homework Equations



sqrt(2*pi*k) * k^k * e^-k < k! < sqrt(2*pi*k) * k^k * e^-k * (1 + 1/4*k)

The Attempt at a Solution



Have tried using the inequality to get lower bound for C(n,n/2), but get something smaller than 1/(2*sqrt(n)).

If your inequality is *exactly* as written, it is false. Look at R(n) = 2*sqrt(n)*C(n,n/2)/2^(n+1). We can easily plot it, and see that it is strictly increasing, starting at R(1) = 1/sqrt(pi) = 0.6366 and rising asymptotically to R(infinity) = sqrt(2/pi) = 0.7979. In other words, we never have R(n) > 1, which your inequality gives. We can get simple bounds on R(n) by using bounds S(k) < k! < S(k)*exp(1/ 12k) [see Feller, Intro. to Probability for a simple proof], where S(k) = sqrt(2*pi*k)*k^k*exp(-k) is Stirling's formula. Then we get a lower bound on R(n) by using the lower bound in the numerator and upper bounds in the denominator, and vice-versa for an upper bound. In this way we get:
sqrt(2/pi)*exp(-1/ 3n) < R(n) < sqrt(2/pi)*exp(1/ 12n). The upper bound is < 1 for all n >= 1.

RGV
 
Sorry for the mistake. This is from the top of page 17 in Approximation Of Functions By Rivlin,
unless I'm reading it wrong. If you're familiar with the book, I'd be grateful for some help with this.
 
neginf said:
Sorry for the mistake. This is from the top of page 17 in Approximation Of Functions By Rivlin,
unless I'm reading it wrong. If you're familiar with the book, I'd be grateful for some help with this.

I don't have the book, and since retiring and moving away from my old university I no longer have access to its books---only to some e-journals. What, exactly, is the statement you want to prove?

RGV
 

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