Calculate the circulation of vector field

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the circulation of the vector field \(\vec{v} = \cos(x)\sin(y)\vec{i} - \sin(x)\cos(y)\vec{j}\) around a square defined by the bounds \(-\frac{\pi}{2} \leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{2}\) and \(-\frac{\pi}{2} \leq y \leq \frac{\pi}{2}\). The user, Marius, correctly identifies that the circulation along one side can be multiplied by 4 to obtain the total circulation, resulting in a final value of \(I = 8\). The discussion also confirms the result using Stokes' theorem, where the curl of the vector field is calculated as \(\vec{\nabla} \times \vec{v} = -2\cos(x)\cos(y)\hat{z}\).

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Jonsson
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Hello there,

I've got a vector field which you can see here: Sketch of the vector field . It is: [itex]\vec{v} = \cos(x)\,\sin(y)\vec{i}-\sin(x)\,\cos(y)\vec{j}[/itex]

Say I want to find the circulation around the square formed by [itex]-\frac{\pi}{2} \, \leq x \leq \, \frac{\pi}{2}[/itex] and [itex]-\frac{\pi}{2} \, \leq y \leq \, \frac{\pi}{2}[/itex]. I think that I should do this by finding the circulation along one of the sides, and multiply by 4 (I can tell from the vector field that the circulation along one of the sides is going to be equal to every other side.

This is where I become unconfident. [itex]\int_{y = -\frac{\pi}{2}}^{y = \frac{\pi}{2}}\vec{v}\,\mathrm{d}\vec{r}[/itex] Please correct me if I am wrong. Any criticism is appreciated:

My [itex]\mathrm{d}\vec{r} = \mathrm{d}y\vec{j}[/itex] along the y-axis, for the first side: [itex](\Delta y = -\frac{\pi}{2}, x = -\frac{\pi}{2})[/itex].

[itex]\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos(x)\,\sin(y) \, \mathrm{d}y -\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\sin(x)\,\cos(y) \, \mathrm{d}y[/itex]

[itex]\cos(-\frac{\pi}{2}) = 0[/itex], so the first integral is equal to zero.

[itex]-\sin(-\frac{\pi}{2})\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\cos(y) \, \mathrm{d}y = \int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\cos(y) \, \mathrm{d}y = [\sin(y)]_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} = \sin(\frac{\pi}{2}) - \sin(-\frac{\pi}{2}) = 2[/itex]

First question:
Is the above correct?

Second question:
Can you think of any additional criticism?

Thank you for your time.

Kind regards,
Marius
 
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You are correct if you multiply your result by 4 to get the value of the line integral ##I=8##.

You can check the result using Stokes' theorem $$\oint \vec{v}\cdot d\vec l=\int_S \vec {\nabla}\times \vec v \cdot \hat n~dS$$Here, ##\vec {\nabla}\times \vec v=-2\cos(x)\cos(y)~\hat z##. We have already chosen clockwise line integration therefore ##\hat n=-\hat z##.Thus, $$\int_S \vec {\nabla}\times \vec v \cdot \hat n~dS=+2\int_S\cos(x)\cos(y)dx~dy=2\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\cos(x)dx\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\cos(y)dy=8.$$
 

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