Calculating 4 Integral: A Tan & Cos Theta Substitution

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the calculation of the integral 4 ∫₀^(π/2) (cos²θ / (1 + cos²θ)²) dθ, exploring various substitution methods including u = tanθ and u = cos t. Participants express confusion regarding the appropriateness of these substitutions and their implications for the integral's evaluation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the potential of using u = tanθ as a substitution, questioning its effectiveness compared to u = cos t. There are considerations about how these substitutions affect the integral and the resulting expressions. Some participants express uncertainty about the transformations and derivatives involved.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants actively engaging in exploring different substitution methods and their consequences. There is no clear consensus, but some guidance has been offered regarding the transformations and the relationships between trigonometric functions.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the limited scope of trigonometric functions they have learned, which may influence their understanding of the problem. There are also references to potential confusion regarding the limits of integration and the behavior of the functions involved.

flybyme
Messages
20
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



how would one calculate 4 \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\cos^2 \theta}{(1 + \cos^2 \theta)^2} d \theta?

The Attempt at a Solution



someone suggested a u = \tan \theta substitution, but i don't understand why and how this would help me. couldn't i just use u = \cos t?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Divide top and bottom by \cos^4\theta.

The function becomes \frac{\sec^2\theta}{(\sec^2\theta+1)^2}

Does that make u=\tan\theta looks like a good move?

u = cos t is probably a bad move, because du = -sin t dt and the sin t doesn't cancel with anything.
 
Last edited:
AlephZero said:
Divide top and bottom by \cos^4\theta.

The function becomes \frac{\sec^2\theta}{(\sec^2\theta+1)^2}

Does that make u=\tan\theta looks like a good move?

the only trig functions we learn here are tan, cos and sin, so I'm not really sure... :)

u = cos t is probably a bad move, because du = -sin t dt and the sin t doesn't cancel with anything.

wouldn't i get du = -sin t dt = -sqrt(1 - cos^2 t) = -sqrt(1 - u^2) dt?

because then the integral should translate to -4 \int_1^0 \frac{u^2}{ (u^2+1)(1-u^2)^{1/2} } du, or am i wrong?
 
flybyme said:
the only trig functions we learn here are tan, cos and sin, so I'm not really sure... :)



I agree with what you had in the last post, except, wouldn't it be (1+u^2)^2 in the denominator? Anyway, now what?
 
Last edited:

yeah, I've never understood why that is so...
 
flybyme said:
the only trig functions we learn here are tan, cos and sin, so I'm not really sure... :)



wouldn't i get du = -sin t dt = -sqrt(1 - cos^2 t) = -sqrt(1 - u^2) dt?

because then the integral should translate to -4 \int_1^0 \frac{u^2}{ (u^2+1)(1-u^2)^{1/2} } du, or am i wrong?

what is the derivative of \tan \theta?
 
also do you know 1+\tan^2\theta =\sec^2\theta?
 
I edited my post just a little too late... isn't it (u^2 + 1)^2 in the denominator?
 
drpizza said:
I edited my post just a little too late... isn't it (u^2 + 1)^2 in the denominator?

oops. yeah, that's right.
 
  • #10
mjsd said:
also do you know 1+\tan^2\theta =\sec^2\theta?

no, i didn't know that. :)

so i would get 4 \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\sec^2 \theta}{(\sec^2 \theta + 1)^2} d \theta = 4 \int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\tan^2 \theta + 1}{(\tan^2 \theta + 2)^2} d \theta = 4 \int_0^{\Omega} \frac{u^2 + 1}{(u^2 + 2)^2(u^2 + 1)} du = 4 \int_0^{\Omega} \frac{du}{(u^2 + 2)^2}

as u = \tan \theta and du = (1 + \tan^2 \theta) d \theta = (1 + u^2) d \theta.

does that seem correct? I'm unsure on what \Omega would be though, as \tan \pi/2 = \infty
 
Last edited:
  • #11
Ahh Nope, \int \frac{\sec^2\theta}{(\sec^2\theta+1)^2} d\theta becomes \int \frac{1}{u^2} du when u = tan theta, because the derivative of tan theta is (sec theta)^2.

In case you don't know Sec x = 1/(cos x) by definition.
 
  • #12
Gib Z said:
Ahh Nope, \int \frac{\sec^2\theta}{(\sec^2\theta+1)^2} d\theta becomes \int \frac{1}{u^2} du when u = tan theta

Oops... you mean \int \frac{1}{(u^2+2)^2} du

1 + tan^2 x = sec^2 x

NOT 1 + sec^x = tan^2 x !

(And even if that was true, it would have been u^4 not u^2)
 
  • #13
Sorry about that, your right of course AlephZero.
 
  • #14
\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi }{2}}\frac{\cos ^{2}x}{\left( 1+\cos ^{2}x\right) ^{2}}dx=\allowbreak \int_{0}^{\infty }\frac{1}{\left( 1+p^{2}\right) ^{2}\left( 1+\frac{1}{1+p^{2}}\right) ^{2}}\,dp=\int_{0}^{\infty }\frac{1}{\left( 2+p^{2}\right) ^{2}}\,dp\allowbreak

=\allowbreak \int_{0}^{\frac{1}{2}\pi }\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4+4\tan ^{2}q}\,dq=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4}\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{2}\pi }\cos ^{2}q \ {} \ dq=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{4}\frac{\pi }{4}=\frac{\pi\sqrt{2}}{16}
 
  • #15
Would I be the only person to be a tiny bit confused as to what exactly dexter did ...
 
Last edited:
  • #16
Would it help if you knew that \tan x=p and p=\sqrt{2}\tan q ?
 
  • #17
Ahh yup it did :D
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
Replies
28
Views
2K
  • · Replies 19 ·
Replies
19
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K