bres gres
				
				
			 
			
	
	
	
		
	
	
			
		
		
			
			
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- TL;DR
 - i try to understand 
$$\nabla_{V} W =/ V(W)$$
but get stuck and i read some material online. 
in the language of general relativity,we know that we can write
$$\nabla_{V}W $$
in this form such that:
$$\nabla_{V}W = = w^i d ( V^j e_j)/du^i = w^j e^i (V^j e_j ) = W( V)$$
where $$w^i * d/ (du^i) =W$$ will act on the vector V
where $$W = w^i d( ) /du^i $$ and W is a vector as a operator
but in non-torsion free form we know that $$\nabla_{w} V - \nabla_{v} W = [V,W] + T(v,w)$$
where T(v,w) is a torsion tensorwhich implied $$[V,W] =VW-WV = \nabla_{w} V - \nabla_{v}W$$
i just want to know why i am not correct in this derivation since i cannot prove they are NOT equal.
thank you
				
			$$\nabla_{V}W $$
in this form such that:
$$\nabla_{V}W = = w^i d ( V^j e_j)/du^i = w^j e^i (V^j e_j ) = W( V)$$
where $$w^i * d/ (du^i) =W$$ will act on the vector V
where $$W = w^i d( ) /du^i $$ and W is a vector as a operator
but in non-torsion free form we know that $$\nabla_{w} V - \nabla_{v} W = [V,W] + T(v,w)$$
where T(v,w) is a torsion tensorwhich implied $$[V,W] =VW-WV = \nabla_{w} V - \nabla_{v}W$$
i just want to know why i am not correct in this derivation since i cannot prove they are NOT equal.
thank you
			
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