MHB Calculating Residues Using Laurent Series

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The discussion focuses on evaluating the integral of the function 1/(exp(iz) - 1) over a closed contour around the origin, which has a singularity at z=0. The residue theorem is applied to find the integral, noting that there is a simple pole at z=0. The residue is calculated using L'Hospital's Rule, leading to a result of 2π. Additionally, the discussion touches on the general method for finding residues when dealing with functions that have simple zeros and poles. The approach emphasizes the importance of identifying the behavior of the functions near their singularities for accurate residue calculation.
shen07
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Hi guys,

well i have the problem below,

$$\int_{\gamma(0;1)}\frac{1}{\exp(iz)-1}\mathrm{d}z$$

so it is holormorphic in D'(0,1) as it has a point not holomorphic at z=0.

Taking a Laurent Series in the form $$f(z)=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}C_n(z-0)^n$$

But i wil get $$\frac{1}{\exp(iz)-1}=\frac{1}{iz+(iz)^2+(iz)^3+\cdots}$$
If i get the coefficient of $$C_-1$$, then i am done. I will have to do a long Division involving $$i$$, Is there any simpler way to do that?? Or please help me the way i am proceeding.
 
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shen07 said:
Hi guys,

well i have the problem below,

$$\int_{\gamma(0;1)}\frac{1}{\exp(iz)-1}\mathrm{d}z$$

so it is holormorphic in D'(0,1) as it has a point not holomorphic at z=0.

Taking a Laurent Series in the form $$f(z)=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}C_n(z-0)^n$$

But i wil get $$\frac{1}{\exp(iz)-1}=\frac{1}{iz+(iz)^2+(iz)^3+\cdots}$$
If i get the coefficient of $$C_-1$$, then i am done. I will have to do a long Division involving $$i$$, Is there any simpler way to do that?? Or please help me the way i am proceeding.

Since the contour is closed and there is only one simple pole, $\displaystyle \begin{align*} z = 0 + 0i \end{align*}$, we can evaluate this using the residue theorem.

$\displaystyle \begin{align*} \int_{\gamma (0, 1)} { \frac{1}{e^{i\,z} - 1}\,dz } &= 2\pi\,i\,\textrm{Res}_{z = 0} \left( \frac{1}{e^{i\,z} - 1} \right) \\ &= 2\pi \, i \lim_{z \to 0} \left[ \left( z - 0 \right) \left( \frac{1}{ e^{i\,z} - 1 } \right) \right] \\ &= 2\pi\,i \lim_{z \to 0} \frac{z}{e^{i\,z} - 1} \\ &= 2\pi \, i \lim_{z \to 0} \frac{1}{ i\,e^{i\,z} } \textrm{ by L'Hospital's Rule} \\ &= 2\pi\,i \left( \frac{1}{i} \right) \\ &= 2\pi \end{align*}$
 
Assume the following

$$f(z)=\frac{g(z)}{h(z)}$$

where $h(z)$ has a simple zero at $z_0$ and $g$ is analytic at $z_0$ and $g(z_0)\neq 0 $ then

$$Res(f;z_0) = \lim_{z\to z_0}(z-z_0)\frac{g(z)}{h(z)}=\lim_{z \to z_0}\frac{g(z)}{\frac{h(z)-h(z_0)}{z-z_0}}$$

Now since $h$ is analytic on $z_0$ and $h'(z_0)\neq 0$ because the zero is simple we have

$$Res(f;z_0) =\frac{\lim_{z \to z_0}g(z)}{\lim_{z \to z_0}\frac{h(z)-h(z_0)}{z-z_0}}=\frac{g(z_0)}{h'(z_0)}$$

If on the other hand $g$ has a zero at $z_0$ then the $f$ has a removable singularity at $z_0$. So $Res(f;z_0)=0$.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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