thats a tricky one, so going with what you said
[tex]\lim_{x \to 0} (\frac{arcsin(x)}{x})^{\frac{1}{x^2}} <br />
= \lim_{x \to 0} e^{\frac{ln(\frac{arcsin(x)}{x})}{x^2}}[/tex]
now let
[tex]b =\frac{ln(\frac{arcsin(x)}{x})}{x^2}[/tex]
if the limit exists, its equal to e^(b), so finding the limit of a is sufficient
thats 0/0 indeterminate, so we can apply L'Hops rule - though i can see it will be a bit messy
ok, so how about starting by looking at the arcsin function and its derivatives, let's abuse the notation a bit and call it a for brevity recognising its a function of x:
[tex]a(x) = arcsin(x), \ \ \ \ \ \ \lim_{x \to 0} a(x) = 0[/tex]
[tex]a'(x) = (1-x^2)^{1/2}, \ \ \ \ \lim_{x \to 0} a'(x) = 1[/tex]
[tex]a''(x) = x(1-x^2)^{3/2}, \ \ \ \lim_{x \to 0} a''(x) = 0[/tex]
[tex]a'''(x) = (1-x^2)^{3/2} -3x(1-x^2)^{5/2}, \ \lim_{x \to 0} a'''(x) = 0[/tex]
now going back to
[tex]b = \lim_{x \to 0}\frac{ln(\frac{arcsin(x)}{x})}{x^2}<br />
= \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{ln(a) - ln(x)}{x^2}[/tex]
this is 0/0 so using L'Hop
[tex]
= \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{a'/a - 1/x}{x^2} = \lim_{x \to 0}\frac{1}{2} \frac{a'x - a}{ax^2}[/tex]
once again, this is 0/0 so using L'Hop
[tex]
= \lim_{x \to 0}\frac{1}{2} \frac{a''x}{a'x^2+ 2ax}= \lim_{x \to 0}\frac{1}{2} \frac{a''}{a'x+ 2a}[/tex]
one more time, this is 0/0 so using L'Hop
[tex]
= \lim_{x \to 0}\frac{1}{2} \frac{a'''}{a''x+a'+ 2a'}= \lim_{x \to 0}\frac{1}{2} \frac{a'''}{a''x+3a'}[/tex]
and at this point you should be able to sub in with the properties of the derivatives