Can Bounded, Constant Functions from [a,b] be Homeomorphisms to the Real Line?

  • Thread starter Thread starter qinglong.1397
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Functions
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the question of whether a collection of bounded, constant functions from the interval [a, b] can form a homeomorphism to the real line. The participants establish that by defining a metric \(\rho(f,g)=\sup|f(x)-g(x)|\) for functions in set A, they can treat A as a metric space. However, they conclude that while the values of functions in A appear to be bounded, the existence of functions approaching infinity contradicts the possibility of A being homeomorphic to the real line, leading to the conclusion that no such homeomorphism exists.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of homeomorphisms in topology
  • Familiarity with metric spaces and their properties
  • Knowledge of bounded functions and their implications
  • Basic concepts of real analysis
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the definition and properties of homeomorphisms in topology
  • Explore metric space theory, focusing on bounded functions
  • Investigate the implications of boundedness in real analysis
  • Learn about the topology of the real line and its characteristics
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of topology, and anyone interested in the properties of functions and their relationships within metric spaces.

qinglong.1397
Messages
108
Reaction score
1

Homework Statement



Let A be a collection of bounded, constant functions from the interval [a, b] to the real line.

Then, is there a homeomorphism from A to the real line?



Thanks!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You should show some work. Start with the definition of a homeomorphism.
 
fzero said:
You should show some work. Start with the definition of a homeomorphism.

Oh, yeah, I should.

First, assign set A a metric which is defined as [tex]\rho[/tex](f,g)=sup|f(x)-g(x)| for x in [a, b]. Then A is a metric space.

Second, the real line has the usual topology.

So we may find a homeomorphism between these two topological spaces? I think the answer is Yes.

Since every function f in A should be bounded, that is, the value of f should be finite, the first conclusion I can get is that the set B of the values of the functions in A seems bounded. But if B is bounded, we can find a value g larger than f in A and g(x) would be a constant function on [a, b] with definite value, so g is contained in A. Then A is enlarged and B enlarged, too. We can repeat similar process infinitely and in the end B=R. So I think there is a homeomorphism.

But there is a problem. Since B=R, there is a function equal +infinity and the other one -infinity. These two functions are not bounded. So then, B does not equal R. If so, we can always find a upper bound of B and a lower bound, then similar argument will appear again which leads to that B=R.

What is the problem?
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K