Can Godel's Unprovable Formulae Be Proven from Peano Axioms?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around Gödel's Incompleteness Theorems, particularly focusing on whether there are arithmetic statements that cannot be derived from the Peano axioms. Participants explore the implications of Gödel's results, the nature of undecidable propositions, and the relationship between models of natural numbers and provability.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests that Gödel's results imply the existence of arithmetic facts that cannot be derived from the Peano axioms.
  • Another participant clarifies that Gödel's First Incompleteness Theorem states that any consistent and sufficiently powerful number theory must include undecidable propositions, citing the Continuum Hypothesis as a notable example.
  • A participant discusses the nuances of formal logic, stating that while the arithmetic of natural numbers is incomplete, there exist true statements in some models that cannot be proven or disproven from the axioms.
  • Goodstein's theorem is presented as an example of a statement that is true in one model of natural numbers but may be false in another.
  • One participant expresses a belief that if a statement cannot be proven from the Peano axioms, it is necessarily true, prompting a challenge from another participant regarding the validity of such a claim.
  • A later reply attempts to clarify that the statement may refer to undecidable propositions rather than all statements that cannot be proven from the axioms.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the implications of statements that cannot be proven from the Peano axioms, with some asserting that such statements are necessarily true while others challenge this notion. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the nature of undecidable statements and their truth across different models.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference specific models of natural numbers and the implications of Gödel's theorems, but there are limitations in the clarity of definitions and the conditions under which statements are evaluated.

Cincinnatus
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One of Godel's results would imply that there must be arithmetic facts (formulae?) that cannot be derived from the peano axioms. (Unless my understanding here is wrong that is).

So I wonder, has anyone found such a formula? How could it be proved?
 
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Your understanding is close. A better statement of the Gödel's First Incompleteness Theorem is that that any consistent and sufficiently powerful number theory must include undecidable propositions.

The Continuum Hypothesis is the most famous undecidable proposition. Gödel proved no contradiction would result should the Continuum Hypothesis be added to ZF set theory. Cohen later proved no contradiction would result should the negation of the hypothesis be added to ZF.
 
There are a lot of very subtle nuances when dealing with formal logic.

As a theory, the arithmetic of natural numbers is incomplete: that means there exists a statement P that cannot be proven or disproven from the axioms.

However, one might have a model of the natural numbers. One of the things you can do with a model is to evaluate the truth of any statement.

Therefore, for any model of the natural numbers, there must exist a true statement P that cannot be proven or disproven from the axioms. (Of course, P might be false in a different model of the natural numbers)


Here's an example of a suitable statement P:

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/GoodsteinsTheorem.html

In formal set theory, we usually use a particular model of the natural numbers. Intuitively, each natural number is defined to be the set of all smaller natural numbers. So, 0 = {}, 1 = {0} (= {{}}), 2 = {0, 1}, et cetera. Goodstein's theorem is true for this model of the natural numbers.

However, it would be false for some other model of the natural numbers.
 
Goodstein's theorem sounds like what I was getting at.

Interesting...
 
I remember reading that if a statement cannot be proved from the Peano's axioms, the it is necessarily true. But memory doesn't serve where, or why that was so. Anybody going to rebuke me?
 
If a statement cannot be proven from the axioms of peano then it is necessarily true? Erm, no, because 1+1=3 cannot be proven from the axioms since it is false.

What kind of statement? In what model?
 
sorry, perhaps it was if it is undecidable from the axioms...
 

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