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I thought that the OP was seeking confirmation that total energy, not just rest mass, gravitates and thus should be included in calculating the Chandrasekhar limit. (Even if his example and expression of the question was flawed.)
A recent PF Insights, https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/do-photons-have-mass/, used the definition "The invariant mass of a particle is defined as the total energy of the particle measured in the particle’s rest frame divided by the speed of light squared." The definition says particle, but I take it to apply anybody or system including a black hole.
Physicists have stopped using the term relativistic mass because it causes confusion. Isn't the situation the same with the term rest mass? Why not abandon the word mass in all contexts and talk only about energy instead? If we did so, then then OP might not have needed to ask his question in the first place.
I see that particle physics with Feynman diagrams already uses elecron-volts for the energy of particles entering and leaving, eschewing use of mass.
A recent PF Insights, https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/do-photons-have-mass/, used the definition "The invariant mass of a particle is defined as the total energy of the particle measured in the particle’s rest frame divided by the speed of light squared." The definition says particle, but I take it to apply anybody or system including a black hole.
Physicists have stopped using the term relativistic mass because it causes confusion. Isn't the situation the same with the term rest mass? Why not abandon the word mass in all contexts and talk only about energy instead? If we did so, then then OP might not have needed to ask his question in the first place.
I see that particle physics with Feynman diagrams already uses elecron-volts for the energy of particles entering and leaving, eschewing use of mass.