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Hey guys,
I was just doing some independent study on products of series and I'm trying to understand/derive the following form of the Cauchy product of series:
[tex]\left(\sum_{n=0}^{N} a_{n}\right) \left(\sum_{m=0}^{N} b_{m}\right) = \sum_{n=0}^{N} \left(\sum_{k=0}^{n} a_{k}b_{n-k}\right)[/tex]
Is it that one redefines the dummy variable [itex]m[/itex] in the following manner [itex]m\rightarrow n-k[/itex] with the following constraint on [itex]k[/itex], [itex]0\leq k\leq n[/itex], or is there some other reasoning behind it that I'm missing?
Thanks in advance.
I was just doing some independent study on products of series and I'm trying to understand/derive the following form of the Cauchy product of series:
[tex]\left(\sum_{n=0}^{N} a_{n}\right) \left(\sum_{m=0}^{N} b_{m}\right) = \sum_{n=0}^{N} \left(\sum_{k=0}^{n} a_{k}b_{n-k}\right)[/tex]
Is it that one redefines the dummy variable [itex]m[/itex] in the following manner [itex]m\rightarrow n-k[/itex] with the following constraint on [itex]k[/itex], [itex]0\leq k\leq n[/itex], or is there some other reasoning behind it that I'm missing?
Thanks in advance.